上海普陀区2018届高三英语二模试题(带答案)
加入VIP免费下载

本文件来自资料包: 《上海普陀区2018届高三英语二模试题(带答案)》 共有 1 个子文件,压缩包列表如下:

注:压缩包层级关系提取自源文件,您看到的所有资料结构都和您下载的源文件一致

温馨提示:
1. 部分包含数学公式或PPT动画的文件,查看预览时可能会显示错乱或异常,文件下载后无此问题,请放心下载。
2. 本文档由用户上传,版权归属用户,天天资源网负责整理代发布。如果您对本文档版权有争议请及时联系客服。
3. 下载前请仔细阅读文档内容,确认文档内容符合您的需求后进行下载,若出现内容与标题不符可向本站投诉处理。
4. 下载文档时可能由于网络波动等原因无法下载或下载错误,付费完成后未能成功下载的用户请联系客服处理。
网站客服:403074932
资料简介
www.ks5u.com 普陀区2017学年第二学期高三英语质量调研 英语试卷 考生注意:‎ 1. 考试时间120分钟,试卷满分140分。‎ 2. 本次考试设试卷和答题纸两部分。所有答题必须涂(选择题)或写(非选择题)在答题纸上,做在试卷上一律不得分。‎ 3. 答题前,务必在答题纸上填写准考证号和姓名,并将核对后的条形码贴在指定位置上, 在答题纸反面清楚地填写姓名。‎ I. Listening Comprehension ‎ Section A 10%‎ Directions: In Section A, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard.‎ ‎1. A. Cold. B. Sunny. C. Rainy D. Cloudy.‎ ‎2. A. 110 minutes. B. 120 minutes. C. 130 minutes. D. 140 minutes.‎ ‎3. A. Shop assistant and customer. B. Boss and assistant.‎ ‎ C. Professor and student. D. Husband and wife.‎ ‎4. A. In a meeting room. B. In a reference room.‎ ‎ C. At a booking office. D. At a police station.‎ ‎5. A. A movie. B. A lecture. C. A play. D. A speech.‎ ‎6. A. The woman shouldn’t be so upset. B. He’s an hour late for the interview.‎ ‎ C. The woman should be patient. D. He’s too nervous to calm down. ‎ ‎7. A. The man is intelligent enough. B. The man does not work hard enough.‎ ‎ C. The man should get some sleep. D. The man is hard-working.‎ ‎8. A. He doesn’t enjoy business trips as much as he used to.‎ ‎ B. He wants to spend more time with his family.‎ ‎ C. He doesn’t think he is capable of doing the job.‎ ‎ D. He thinks the pay is too low to support his family.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎9. A. The woman doesn’t have money for her son’s graduate studies.‎ ‎ B. The woman doesn’t think her son will get a business degree.‎ ‎ C. The woman insists that her son should major in science.‎ ‎ D. The woman advises her son to think twice before making his decision.‎ ‎10. A. It ran into another car. B. It fell into a river and sank.‎ ‎ C. It broke down on the road. D. It left the road and landed in a field.‎ ‎ ‎ Section B 15%‎ Directions: In Section B, you will hear two short passages and one longer conversation, and you will be asked several questions on each of the passages and the conversation. The passages and the conversation will be read twice, but the questions will be spoken only once. When you hear a question, read the four possible answers on your paper and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.‎ Questions 11 through 13 are based on the following recording.‎ ‎11. A. Noise. B. Smoking. C. Litter. D. Drinking.‎ ‎12. A. A tour guide. B. A conductor. C. A teacher. D. A lawyer.‎ ‎13. A. To prepare people for international travel.‎ ‎ B. To make the laws of different kinds.‎ ‎ C. To inform people of the punishment for breaking laws.‎ ‎ D. To give advice to travelers to the country.‎ Questions 14 through 16 are based on the following recording.‎ ‎14. A. Conference with the course tutor. B. Active attendance and commitment.‎ C. Punctuality and politeness. D. Debate and essay preparation.‎ ‎15. A. Inform the teacher in advance. B. Just do not choose the course.‎ C. Drop out of the course. D. Make it up later ‎ ‎ ‎16. A. One that is written by hand. B. One that is original. ‎ C. One that is revised by the tutor. D. One that keeps to the instructions.‎ Questions 17 through 20 are based on the following conversation.‎ ‎17. A. His knees and fingers ache. B. He doesn’t feel like eating.‎ C. He can’t sleep very well. D. His blood pressure is high.‎ ‎18. A. She asks him to have injections and a treatment with rays.‎ ‎ B. She asks him to have an operation and a treatment with rays.‎ ‎ C. She asks him to have a good rest and a treatment with rays.‎ ‎ D. She asks him to have some herbal medicine and a treatment with rays.‎ ‎19. A. Every day for seven weeks. B. Three times a week for seven weeks.‎ ‎ C. Three times a week for three weeks. D. Twenty times for two weeks.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎20. A. Use hot water pads. B. Sit by the stove.‎ ‎ C. Drink cold water. D. Take cold baths.‎ II. Grammar and vocabulary ‎ Section A 10%‎ Directions: After reading the passage below, fill in the blanks to make the passage coherent and grammatically correct. For the blanks with a given word, fill in each blank with the proper form of the given word; for the other blanks, use one word that best fits each blank.‎ Jim Thompson Jim Thompson’s life story is one of success, achievement, and finally mystery because no one knows how it ended.‎ Thompson was born in Delaware (21) _____ the east coast of the United States in 1906. After finishing high school, Thompson went to Princeton University and later studied architecture at the University of Pennsylvania. After graduation, Jim Thompson worked as an architect in New York City until 1940. Not long after this, he volunteered (22) _____ (serve) in the U.S. Army. During World War II, Thompson gathered intelligence for the army in Thailand. It was this first taste of life in the Far East (23) _____ changed Thompson’s life. He saw opportunities to develop tourism there, becoming (24) _____ (involve) in an ambitious scheme to restore the Oriental Hotel.‎ While the hotel plan fell through, by that time Thompson had hit upon another scheme that would eventually make him a millionaire. While traveling around Thailand, he came across (25) _____ he considered exquisite (精美的) samples of handwoven Thai silk, a product that (26) _____ (become) rare. He persuaded the weavers to work with him and marketed the silk in New York, (27) _____ it became very popular. As a consequence, the Thai silk industry was revived (复兴) and the business made Thompson and some of the weavers very wealthy.‎ With his success in the silk business, Jim Thompson continued his original interest in architecture on the side. He found six traditional Thai houses and had (28) _____ brought to Bangkok and reassembled there as one magnificent house. Today, not only is it a beautiful house inside and out, (29) _____ it is also filled with the works of art Thompson collected.‎ In 1967 during a holiday in Malaysia, he went for a walk in the Jungle and disappeared forever. To this day, no clues (30) _____ (find) as to what happened to this wealthy American businessman who is credited with single–handedly reviving the Thai silk industry. ‎ Section B 10%‎ Directions: Fill in each blank with a proper word chosen from the box. Each word can be used only ‎ once. Note that there is one word more than you need.‎ A. concern B. dramatic C. equivalent D. frequently E. impact F. imposed ‎ G. representative H. observed I. residents J. significantly K. strategies Mentally and Intellectually Harmful Last month, the Indian Medical Association declared a public health emergency in New Delhi because of high levels of air pollution. Schools were shut and emergency traffic restrictions put in place. ‎ New Delhi is far from alone. Our research into the __31__ of air pollution in China shows that, in addition to the more obvious physical price, air pollution can also have serious negative effects on mental health and cognition (认知), __32__ reducing a person’s happiness and their scores in verbal and mathematical tests.‎ Such harmful mental effects have serious negative consequences for livelihoods and human capital development, suggesting that development __33__ should go beyond the traditional focus of boosting GDP in the developing world.‎ India’s recent pollution emergency is the most __34__ incidence (发生率) of dangerous air pollution, but smoggy skies have been a cause of growing __35__ in most developing countries.‎ Major cities across the developing world — from Thailand, to Brazil, to Nigeria —__36__ experience pollution at several times the WHO safe limits. In fact, 98% of cities with more than 100,000 __37__ in low and middle-income countries fail to meet the WHO’s air quality guidelines.‎ India’s extreme levels of air pollution are well recognized, and examining the effects provides clear warnings for other countries seeking fast growth through rapid industrialization.‎ We used nationally __38__ longitudinal (纵向) surveys on mental health and cognition, matched with daily air quality data for the time and place of interviews, to see what pollution does in a given time to individual happiness and cognitive performance. Because each person in our survey was __39__ multiple times, we can control for the effect of individual characteristics on the outcome variables.‎ We found that worsening air quality led to a decrease in happiness that day __40__ to about 10 percent of the reduced happiness one would experience from a negative major life event such as divorce. ‎ III. Reading Comprehension Section A 15%‎ Directions: For each blank in the following passage there are four words or phrases marked A, B, C and D. Fill in each blank with the word or phrase that best fits the context.‎ Globalization: Good or Bad?‎ Globalization is defined in many ways. One simple __41__ is that it is the rapid increase in international free trade, investment, and technological exchange. It is argued ‎ that this international trade has been one of the main causes of world economic __42__ over the past half century. Although there is little doubt that the global economy has developed enormously in the last 50 years, some people believe that this trend has only benefited certain countries, and that others have suffered as a result.‎ Improved income? ‎ An argument __43__ globalization is that the benefits of increased international trade are shared among everyone in the country. An example of this is China, where per capita income (人均收入) rose from about $1400 in 1980 to over $4000 by 2000. __44__, per capita income rose by over 100% in India between 1980 and 1996. It would appear that countries which open their doors to world trade tend to become __45__.‎ ‎ However, these sorts of __46__ might not be giving a true picture. They are “average”, and despite the fact that there has been a substantial increase in income for a small minority of people, the vast majority have only seen a __47__ improvement. ‎ More imports, more exports ‎ Supporters of free trade point out that there is another direct benefit to be gained from an increase in international trade: exports __48__ imports. Take coffee as an example. Countries which produce and export coffee import the packaging for it: a(n) __49__ trade which enables commerce to develop in two countries at the same time.‎ ‎__50__ maintain that, in general, it is poorer countries that produce and export food such as coffee, and richer countries that produce and export manufactured goods such as packaging materials. Furthermore, it is the richer countries that control the price of goods and, __51__, farmers may be forced to sell their produce at a low price and to buy manufactured goods at a high price.‎ ‎__52__ development ‎ Finally, globalization often __53__ a country to concentrate on industries which are already successful. These countries develop expertise (专门技能) and increase their share in the international market. On the other hand, those countries which __54__ to support all their industries usually do not develop expertise in any one. Consequently, these countries do not find a world market for their goods and do not increase their gross domestic product (GDP). ‎ Anti-globalists claim that there is a serious problem in this argument for the __55__ of industry. Countries which only concentrate on one or two main industries are forced to import other goods. These imported goods are frequently overpriced, and these countries, therefore, have a tendency to accumulate huge debts. ‎ ‎41. A. indication B. principle C. definition D. factor ‎42. A. systems B. solution C. crisis D. growth ‎43. A. in favor of B. on account of C. with regard to D. in honour of ‎44. A. Fortunately B. Similarly C. Undoubtedly D. Unusually ‎45. A. freer B. greater C. stronger D. wealthier ‎46. A. figures B. descriptions C. countries D. benefits ‎47. A. severe B. slight C. further D. general ‎48. A. overtake B. qualify C. fight D. require ‎49. A. two-way B. all-inclusive C. official D. legal ‎50. A. Supporters B. Advocates C. Critics D. Authorities ‎51. A. otherwise B. nevertheless C. therefore D. besides ‎52. A. Global B. Industrial C. National D. Economical ‎53. A. encourages B. restricts C. forbids D. forces ‎54. A. stop B. continue C. fail D. refuse ‎55. A. globalization B. transformation C. specialization D. identification Section B 22%‎ Directions: Read the following three passages. Each passage is followed by several questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that fits best according to the information given in the passage you have just read.‎ ‎(A)‎ The Harlem Renaissance The word “renaissance” means “rebirth.” The Harlem Renaissance took place during the 1920s. It was a time when the African American artistic community grew and flourished, producing a ton of work in a short period of time. The work celebrated African American culture and spoke to their experiences as minorities — both the good parts and the bad parts. ‎ After the Civil War, many African Americans left the South to escape unfair treatment and laws that discriminated against them. Between 1910 and 1920, massive numbers of black Southerners moved from the rural south into the urban North and West in the Great Migration. The African American population of Chicago more than doubled during that time! And in New York, African Americans flocked to uptown Manhattan, settling in a neighborhood called Harlem. Forming a community within the big city let African Americans keep their cultural identity in a white-dominated society. It was a good thing, and a lot of important cultural issues were brought to light during the Harlem Renaissance. One of the most important figures of the time was the African American writer, W.E.B. Du Bois. In his book, The Souls of Black Folk, in 1903, Du Bois wrote that African Americans suffered from something called “double consciousness”. They had their own self-image while they saw themselves through the eyes of white Americans. And performers like Josephine Baker and Paul Robeson brought African American culture to all New Yorkers. The Renaissance was so influential that “Harlem” grew into something of a brand name.‎ African Americans were pushing boundaries across all aspects of society. Black businesses began to flourish, creating a growing middle class, like Madame C.J. Walker, who turned her cosmetics line into a million dollar empire. All together, the artists, and thinkers of this period helped mobilize the larger black population. Young African-Americans took advantage of improved access to higher education. This opened up new career paths and opportunities to attain advanced degrees. Perhaps most importantly, people — black and white — began the push for racial integration, planting the seeds of what would eventually become the civil rights movement of the 1960s. ‎ ‎56. Why did many African Americans leave the South after the Civil War?‎ A. To escape slavery. B. To find jobs in agriculture. ‎ C. To avoid racial discrimination. D. To gain citizenship.‎ ‎57. How did W.E.B. Du Bois contribute to the Harlem Renaissance?‎ A. He led to movement to return to Africa.‎ B. He composed folk music based on African American theme.‎ C. He wrote plays about the African-American experience.‎ D. He wrote about the struggle for African-American identity.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎58. What can you infer about the economic status of African Americans prior to the Harlem ‎ Renaissance?‎ A. Nearly all were unemployed at that time.‎ B. The vast majority were considered lower class.‎ C. Most were regarded as middle class.‎ D. A large percentage were recognized as wealthy.‎ ‎59. What factor allowed many more African Americans to pursue careers in fields like medicine and ‎ ‎ law?‎ A. Spread of black businesses. B. Access to higher education.‎ C. Shift from agriculture to industry. D. Push for unity among all Africans.‎ ‎(B)‎ Sydney Opera House Tours We offer three different tours of this iconic buildings.‎ The Essential Tour brings to life the story behind the design and construction of one of the world’s most famous landmarks. Using interactive audio-visual technology, your guide will take you on a memorable journey inside the youngest building ever to be World Heritage listed.‎ Afterwards, why not stay around and eat at the Studio Café, with its modern Australian menu? You can both enjoy the best views in Sydney and claim a 20% reduction on the total cost of your meal. (Don’t forget to show your ticket in order to claim your discount.)‎ Language: English, French, German Takes place: Daily between 9am and 5pm Prices: Adult $35/ Online $29.75‎ Concessions: Australian seniors and pensioners; students and children of 16 and under $24.50‎ Prior bookings are not essential.‎ ‎—————————————————‎ The Backstage Tour gives you backstage access to the Sydney Opera House. It is a unique opportunity to experience the real-life dramas behind the stage! You might even get to stand on the concert hall stage, take up a conductor’s baton in the orchestra pit and imagine you are leading the performance. You will also get to see inside the stars’ dressing rooms. ‎ The tour concludes with a complimentary breakfast in the Green Room, the private dining area of performers past and present.‎ Takes place: Daily at 7am Prices: $155. No concessions.‎ To purchase: Bookings are essential. ‎ ‎ Limited to 8 people per tour.‎ Online sales expire at 4:30 pm two days prior.‎ Notes: The tour includes up to 300 steps. Flat, rubber-soled shoes must be worn. For safety reasons, children of 12 years old and under are not permitted.‎ ‎—————————————————‎ Opera High Tea consists of a tour where you will walk in the footsteps of world-class singers, dancers and musicians, followed by fine food and music in the spectacular surroundings of the Bennelong Dining Room. What could be better than a treat of delicious light snacks and soft drinks followed by a live recital by a leading Australian singer?‎ An unforgettable treat for young and old!‎ Takes place: Every second Wed., 2pm ‎ Duration: 1.5 hours Prices: $145 per person Book online or visit the Guided Tours Desk ‎60. A traveler will enjoy a performance if he chooses _______.‎ ‎ A. the Essential Tour B. the Backstage Tour C. Opera High Tea D. any of the tours ‎61. Joining the Backstage Tour, a traveler _______.‎ A. is allowed to wear sneakers when standing on the stage B. will have an opportunity to be the conductor of the orchestra C. can take his big family of 8 members to free breakfast D. can buy the discount ticket the day before the tour ‎62. If a couple who travelled with their 17-year-old son joined the Essential Tour and had a meal of $150 there, what would the lowest cost be if paid in cash?‎ A. $203.25. B. $214.5. C. $225. D. 239.25.‎ ‎ (C)‎ A sensational new scientific discovery in the ocean near Australia may explain the most massive extinction of living things in Earth’s history. For years, scholars have been frustrated in trying to analyze why 90 to 95 percent of sea life and 75 percent of land life vanished about 250 million years ago. The extinctions were so enormous that they are called The Great Dying. To date, some authorities on ancient life thought that a volcanic eruption or a sudden change in the environment affected all life on Earth. Other specialists have doubted these theories, maintaining that it was not plausible that a solo volcano could bring about such chaos. From the outset, critics believed these claims were exaggerated.‎ By contrast, there is wide acceptance of the idea that a meteor (流星) which hit Mexico’s Yucatan peninsula 65 million years ago was the primary cause of the dinosaurs’ extinction. Nevertheless, until now they had no evidence of an intense meteor impact 185 million years earlier. Now they do.‎ American geologists have been examining rock samples from a deep sea crater (火山口) near the northwest coast of Australia. The samples were initially collected and preserved by petroleum technicians seeking oil. Now the geologists and their colleagues believe that the precise splits in the rocks’ structure show a typical pattern for meteors. There is a clear distinction from volcanic patterns. In fact, a spokesperson went so far as to say that these rocks completely revise the way scientists perceive the mass extinctions from the ancient era. Academics say that the meteor’s crater is the size of Mount Qomolangma, the highest mountain on Earth! Literally, the meteor made a mark on Earth as it drowned in the sea. The Earth could not absorb such a harsh blow without sustaining global devastation. Things must have come to a standstill. Evidently, the blow was fatal for many forms of life.‎ Bear in mind that all this was long before mammals—including humans—emerged in Earth’s history. Still, we would be wise to pay attention to the damage a meteor can cause. Fortunately, meteor strikes on Earth are few and far between. ‎ ‎63. The word “plausible” (paragraph 1) is closest in meaning to “______”.‎ A. available B. incredible C. reasonable D. ridiculous ‎64. Why didn’t the meteor affect human beings?‎ A. Because they were very resistant. B. Because there weren’t any then.‎ C. Because they lived in isolated areas. D. Because they hid themselves in the caves.‎ ‎65. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?‎ A. Scholars agreed that a single volcano caused The Great Dying.‎ B. 75 percent of land life continued 250 million years ago.‎ C. Volcanic rocks and meteors have different patterns.‎ D. When the meteor hit land, Mount Qomolangma sprang up.‎ ‎66. What is the best title for the passage?‎ A. The Dinosaurs’ End. B. Crater on Qomolangma.‎ C. Contradictory Claims. D. A Meteor’s Impact.‎ Section C 8%‎ Directions: Read the passage carefully. Fill in each blank with a proper sentence given in the box. Each sentence can be used only once. Note that there are two more sentences than you need.‎ A. In daily life, imitation can hurt us if we subconsciously hold poor role models.‎ B. Creative people have an endless resource of ideas.‎ C. It is how to use imagination creatively that troubles us.‎ D. Why follow someone else’s way of cooking when I could create my own? ‎ E. But if you begin to enter this field, imitation proves useful.‎ F. If you are going to follow someone, focus on their talent, not their bad character or unacceptable behaviors.‎ Blind imitation is self-destruction. To those who do not recognize their unique worth, imitation appears attractive; to those who know their strength, imitation is unacceptable.‎ In the early stages of skill or character development, imitation is helpful. When I first learned to cook, I used recipes and turned out some tasty dishes. But soon I grew bored. ______67______‎ Imitating role models is like using training wheels on a child’s bicycle; they help you get going, but once you find your own balance, you fly faster and farther without relying on them.‎ ‎______68______ If, as a child, you observed people whose lives were bad, you may have accepted their fear and pain as normal and gone on to follow what they did. If you do not make strong choices for yourself, you will get the results of the weak choices of others.‎ In the field of entertainment, our culture glorifies celebrities. Those stars look great on screen. But when they step off screen, their personal lives may be disastrous. ______69______‎ Blessed is the person willing to act on their sudden desire to create something unique. Think of the movies, books, teachers, and friends that have affected you most deeply. They touched you because their creations were motivated by inspiration, not desperation. The world is changed not by those who do what has been done before them, but by those who do what has been done inside them. ______70______ The problem a creator faces is not running out of material; it is what to do with the material knocking at the door of imagination.‎ Study your role models, accept the gifts they have given, and leave behind what does not serve you. Then you can say, “I stand on the shoulders of my ancestors’ tragedies and declare victory, and know that they are cheering me on.”‎ IV. Summary Writing 10%‎ Directions: Read the following passage. Summarize the main idea and the main point(s) of the passage in no more than 60 words. Use your own words as far as possible.‎ Better Memory Causes Boredom A new study shows that the better your short-term memory, the faster you feel fed up and decide you’ve had enough. The findings appear in the Journal of Consumer Research.‎ Noelle Nelson, assistant professor of marketing and consumer behavior at the University of Kansas School of Business. She and her colleague Joseph Redden at the University of Minnesota tried to think outside the lunch box. “Something that was interesting to me is that some people get tired of things at very different rates. When you think about pop songs on the radio, some people must still be enjoying them and requesting them even after hearing them a lot. But a lot of other people are really sick of those same songs.” The difference, the researchers supposed, might have to do with memories of past consumption. ‎ The researchers tested the memory capacity of undergraduates. The students then viewed a repeating series of three classic paintings…like The Starry Night, American Gothic, and The Scream…or listened and re-listened to a series of three pop songs…or three pieces of classical music. Throughout the test, the participants were asked to rate their experience on a scale of zero to ten. And the better a participant scored in the memory test, the faster they got bored.‎ ‎“We found that people with larger capacities remembered more about the music or art, which led to them getting tired of the music or art more quickly. So remembering more details actually made the participants feel like they’d experienced the music or art more often.” The findings suggest that marketers could cope with our desire for their products by figuring out ways to distract us and keep us from fully remembering our experiences. We could also trick ourselves into eating less junk food by recalling the experience of a previous snack. As for kids easily bored, just tell them to forget about it—it might help them have more fun.‎ V. Translation 15%‎ Directions: Translate the following sentences into English, using the words given in the brackets.‎ ‎72. 比起节食,我宁愿多做运动来减肥。(prefer)‎ ‎73. 缺乏合作意识是他上月竞选失败的原因。(lack)‎ ‎74. 如果实验过程中有问题出现,请及时与实验室管理员沟通。(arise)‎ ‎75. 春节期间的所见所闻让我们深刻地感受到:千千万万普通人最伟大,幸福都是奋斗出来的。(happiness)‎ VI. Guided Writing 25%‎ Directions: Write an English composition in 120-150 words according to the instructions given below in Chinese.‎ ‎ 母亲节快到了,班里准备在这天召开主题为“感谢母亲”的班会。请你就以下这份调查结果统计表撰写一份演讲稿,在演讲稿中,你必须:‎ ‎1. 描述表格中的信息;‎ ‎2. 分析可能导致这一结果的原因;‎ ‎3. 表达你的想法。‎ 项目 ‎ 小学生 ‎ 初中生 高中生 为母亲庆生的 ‎54%‎ ‎66% ‎ ‎91%‎ 为同学庆生的 ‎56%‎ ‎86%‎ ‎92%‎ 听力文稿 普陀区2017学年第二学期高三英语质量调研 听力部分现在开始:‎ I. Listening Comprehension ‎ Section A Directions: In Section A, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard.‎ ‎(Pause 3 seconds)‎ ‎1. M: It’s a beautiful spring day. The sun is shining and the birds are singing. Let’s go for a walk.‎ ‎ W: But the weather report said it was cloudy and cold this morning.‎ Q: How is the weather now? ‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎2. W: Does the lecture start at 8:00 or 8:15?‎ ‎ M: It starts at 8:30 and ends at 10:40.‎ ‎ Q: How long does the lecture last?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎3. M: Excuse me, what can I do if there is something wrong with what I’ve bought? Can I return them?‎ ‎ W: Yes, but you must demand a refund within 10 days with the receipt. ‎ ‎ Q: What’s the most probable relationship between the two speakers? ‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎4. W: Would you mind making less noise? The others are reading.‎ ‎ M: I’m really sorry! I’ll be careful next time.‎ ‎ Q: Where does this conversation most probably take place?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎5. M: I was terribly embarrassed when some of the audience got up and left in the middle of the performance.‎ ‎ W: Well, some people just can’t seem to appreciate real-life drama.‎ ‎ Q: What are they talking about?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎6. W: You will have an hour to wait, so relax.‎ ‎ M: Relax? How can I when I’m so anxious about the interview? ‎ ‎ Q: What does the man mean?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎7. M: I’m going to burn the midnight oil for my exam.‎ ‎ W: Do you really think that is a clever choice?‎ ‎ Q: What does the woman imply? ‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎8. W: If I were you, I would have accepted the job.‎ ‎ M: I turned down the offer because it would involve frequent business trips away from my family.‎ ‎ Q: Why didn’t the man accept the job?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎9. M: Mom, I have decided to give up science and go to business school.‎ ‎ W: Well, it is your choice as long as you pay your own way, but I should warn you that not everyone with a business degree will make a successful manager.‎ ‎ Q: What can we learn from the conversation? ‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎10. W: I was sorry to hear about your accident.‎ ‎ M: Well, it could have been worse. If it had happened a little further along the road, my car could have landed in the river instead of the grassy field.‎ ‎ Q: What happened to the man’s car? ‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ Section B Directions: In Section B, you will hear two short passages and one longer conversation, and you will be asked several questions on each of the passages and the conversation. The passages and the conversation will be read twice, but the questions will be spoken only once. When you hear a question, read the four possible answers on your paper and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.‎ ‎(Pause 3 seconds)‎ Questions 11 through 13 are based on the following recording.‎ ‎(Pause 2 seconds)‎ Good afternoon, and welcome to England. We hope that your visit here will be a pleasant one. Today, I would like to draw your attention to a few of our laws.‎ The first one is about drinking. Now you may not buy alcohol in this country if you are under 18 years of age, nor your friend buy it for you.‎ Secondly, noise. Enjoy yourself by all means, but please don’t make unnecessary noise, particularly at night. We ask you to respect other people who may wish to be quiet.‎ Thirdly, crossing the road. Be careful. The traffic moves on the left side of the road in this country. Use pedestrian crossings and don’t take any chances when crossing the road.‎ My next point is about litter. It is an offence to drop a litter in the street. When you have something to throw away, please put it in your pocket and take it home, or put it in a litter bin.‎ Finally, as regards smoking, it is against the law to buy cigarettes or tobacco if you are under 16 years old.‎ I'd like to finish by saying that if you require any sort of help or assistance, you should contact your local police station, who will be pleased to help you. ‎ Please listen again.‎ ‎ ‎ Questions:‎ ‎11. What is the fourth law mentioned in the speech?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎12. Who do you think is most likely to make the speech?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎13. What is the main purpose of the speech?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ Questions 14 through 16 are based on the following recording.‎ ‎(Pause 2 seconds)‎ This is a discussion course where your active attendance and participation in class are vital to your success and that of the group. Bring your text to class and be prepared to read aloud, debate vigorously, listen and enjoy. If you must miss class because of a medical or personal emergency, you should notify me beforehand of the fact by phone, e-mail, or in person and get the information you missed. Any unexcused absence takes away 10 percent from your final grade: two latenesses count as one absence. If you have a conflict, like a performance, sports competition, or a part-time job that meets during this class, you should not take the course. Essays are due at the beginning of class on the day assigned. If you need an extension to the next class period you must get permission before the paper is due. A paper coming in after the next class loses one third of a grade for each day it is late. You may schedule a conference with the course tutor immediately after receiving the graded essay and submit a new essay within a week of getting it back. A revision grade will replace the original grade only if it is higher. Essays must be typed, double-spaced, and adequately margined, should include a title and need to observe the conventions of grammar and spelling. (226)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ Please listen again.‎ Questions ‎ 14. What is very important to the success of this discussion course?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ 15. What are the students supposed to do if they have a part-time job at class time?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ 16. What kind of essay does the professor want?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ Questions 17 through 20 are based on the following conversation ‎(Pause 2 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ W: Hello, I’m Mary Brown. How are you this morning?‎ M: Hello, Doctor Brown. I can’t say I’m feeling well. I have a pain in my knee.‎ W: What kind of pain is it?‎ M: It is a dull ache. Sometimes the pain is constant, but it doesn’t disturb my sleep.‎ W: How long have you been feeling pain in your knee?‎ M: For about two years. But recently, I feel pain in my fingers.‎ W: How about your wrist or toes?‎ M: No, only my knees and fingers. The pain becomes worse when the weather changes,‎ ‎ like in cloudy or wet weather.‎ W: OK. Let me see your blood test report first.‎ M: How is it?‎ W: Not very bad.‎ M: Do I have to have an operation?‎ W: No, I don’t think so. I’ll prescribe some Chinese traditional medicine. Also you need a treatment with red rays in the spectrum. ‎ M: Do I have to come here every day for the treatment?‎ W: Not every day. Can you come three days a week? A course of treatment includes 20 times, so you have to come for the treatment 3 times a week for 7 weeks.‎ M: How long does each treatment take?‎ W: 30 minutes.‎ M: OK. I’ll do that.‎ W: When you are at home, use these hot water pads as often as possible. Put it over your knees. Try to avoid using cold water.‎ M: OK. Thank you, Doctor.‎ W: You’re welcome.‎ ‎ ‎ Please listen again.‎ ‎ ‎ Questions ‎ ‎17. What is the problem with the man?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎18. How does the woman treat the man’s problem?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎19. How often is the man supposed to come for the treatment?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ ‎20. What does the woman suggest the man do at home?‎ ‎(Pause 5 seconds)‎ ‎ ‎ 听力测试到此结束,请继续答题。‎ 普陀区2017学年第二学期高三英语质量调研 参考答案 I. Listening Section A ‎1-5 B C A B C 6-10 D C B D D ‎ ‎ Section B ‎ ‎11-13 C A D 14-16 B B D 17-20 A D B A ‎ ‎ 评分标准:‎ ‎1. 1-10题,每小题1分。‎ ‎2. 11—20题,每小题1.5分。‎ ‎ ‎ II. Grammar and Vocabulary Section A ‎21. on 22. to serve 23. that 24. involved 25. what ‎ ‎26. had become 27. where 28. them 29. but 30. have been found ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ 评分标准:‎ ‎1. 21—30题,每小题1分。‎ ‎2. 大小写,拼写错误扣1分。‎ ‎ ‎ Section B ‎ ‎31-35 E J K B A D I G H C ‎ ‎ 评分标准:‎ ‎31—40题,每小题1分。‎ ‎ ‎ III. Reading Comprehension Section A ‎41-45 CDABD 46-50 ABDAC 51-55 CBABC ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ 评分标准:‎ ‎41—55题,每小题1分。‎ Section B ‎ ‎56-59 C D B B 60-62 CA C 63-66 C B C D 评分标准:56—66题,每小题2分。‎ ‎ ‎ Section C ‎67-70 D A F B 评分标准:67—70题,每小题2分。‎ ‎ ‎ IV. Summary Writing For Reference:‎ A study shows if a person has a good short-term memory he is likely to feel bored quickly. Assuming memories of past experience may influence the different rates at which some people feel fed up, two researchers conducted a test, relating students’ memory capacity to their performance, and got the result. The findings may apply to marketing, self-controlling and educating. (60)‎ ‎ ‎ 评分标准:‎ 档次 内容 语言 A ‎5‎ ‎5‎ B ‎4‎ ‎4‎ C ‎3‎ ‎3‎ D ‎2‎ ‎2‎ E ‎1‎ ‎1‎ F ‎0‎ ‎0‎ 评分标准:‎ ‎1. 本题总分为10分, 其中内容5分, 语言5分。‎ ‎2. 评分时应注意的主要方面: 内容要点、信息呈现的连贯性和准确性。‎ ‎3. 词数超过60,酌情扣分。‎ ‎ ‎ 各档次给分要求:‎ 内容部分 A. 能准确、全面地概括文章主旨大意,并涵盖主要信息。‎ B. 能准确概括文章主旨大意,但遗漏个别主要信息。‎ C. 能概括文章主旨大意,但遗漏部分主要信息。‎ D. 未能准确概括文章主旨大意,遗漏较多主要信息或留有过多细节信息。‎ E. 几乎不能概括文章的主旨大意,未涉及文中有意义的相关信息。‎ F. 完全未作答或作答与本题无关。‎ ‎ ‎ 语言部分 A. 能用自己的语言连贯、正确地表述。‎ B. 能用自己的语言较连贯、正确地表述,但有个别语言错误。‎ C. 基本能用自己的语言连贯、正确地表述,但连贯性较差,且有少量不影响表意的语言错误。‎ D. 基本能用自己的语言表述,但连贯性较差,且严重语言错误较多。‎ E. 几乎不能用自己的语言连贯、正确地表述。‎ F. 完全未作答或作答与本题无关。‎ ‎ ‎ V. Translation ‎72. 比起节食,我宁愿多做运动来减肥。(prefer)‎ I prefer to do more sports rather than go on a diet to lose weight.‎ ‎ 1 1 1‎ I prefer doing more sports to going on a diet to lose weight.‎ ‎ 1 1 1‎ ‎73. 缺乏合作意识是他上月竞选失败的原因。(lack)‎ His lack of cooperation consciousness/ awareness accounted for/ resulted in/ brought about/ ‎ ‎ 1 1‎ caused / contributed to his failure in the election last month.‎ ‎ 1‎ That he lacked cooperation consciousness was the reason why he lost the election 1 1 1 ‎ last month.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎74. 如果实验过程中有问题出现,请及时与实验室管理员沟通。(arise)‎ If problems arise during the experiment, communicate with the laboratory assistants ‎ ‎ 1 0.5 1 0.5‎ in time, please.‎ ‎ 1‎ ‎ ‎ ‎75. 春节期间的所见所闻让我们深刻地感受到: 千千万万普通人最伟大, 幸福都是奋斗出来的。(happiness)‎ What we saw and what we heard/ What we experienced during the Spring Festival made us ‎ ‎ 1 0.5 ‎ deeply understand/ fully aware that millions of ordinary people are the greatest and that ‎ ‎ 1 1 0.5 ‎ happiness is achieved through hard work.‎ ‎ 1‎ IV. Guided Writing ‎ ‎ 评分标准:‎ ‎1、本题总分为25分,其中内容10分,语言10分,组织结构5分。‎ ‎2、评分时应注意的主要方面:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性以及上下文的连贯性。‎ ‎3、评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定所属档次,然后对照相应的组织结构档次给予加分。其中,内容和语言两部分相加,得15分或以上者,可考虑加4-5分,15分以下者只能考虑加0、1、2、3分。‎ ‎4、词数少于70,总分最多不超过10分。‎ 档次 内容 语言 组织结构 A ‎9—10‎ ‎9—10‎ ‎4—5‎ B ‎7—8‎ ‎7—8‎ ‎3‎ C ‎5—6‎ ‎5—6‎ ‎2‎ D ‎3—4‎ ‎3—4‎ ‎1‎ E ‎0—2‎ ‎0—2‎ ‎0‎ 各档次给分要求:‎ 内容部分 A.内容充实,主题突出,详略得当。‎ B.内容较充实,能表达出作文要求。‎ C.内容基本充实,尚能表达出作文要求。‎ D.漏掉或未能写清楚主要内容,有些内容与主题无关。‎ E.明显遗漏主要内容,严重离题。‎ 语言部分 A. 具有很好的语言表达能力,语法结构正确或有些小错误,主要因为使用了较复杂结构或 词汇所致。‎ B. 具有较强的语言表达能力,语法结构和词汇的应用基本正确,错误主要因为尝试较复杂结构或词汇所致。‎ C. 有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。‎ D. 语法结构与词汇错误较多,影响了对内容的理解。‎ E. 语法结构与词汇的错误很多,影响了对内容的理解。‎ 组织结构部分 A. 自然地使用了语句间的连接成分,全文流畅结构紧凑。句子结构多样,词汇丰富。‎ B. 能使用语句间连接成分,全文流畅结构紧凑。句子结构多样,词汇较丰富。‎ C. 能使用简单的语句间连接成分,全文内容连贯。句子结构有一定的变化,词汇使用得当。‎ D. 尚能使用语句间连接成分,语言连贯性较差,句子结构单调,词汇贫乏。‎ E. 缺乏语句间的连接成分,语言不连贯。词不达意。‎ 整体作文分类得分 A类 20—25分 B类 16—19分 C类 12—15分 D类 7 — 11分 E类 4 — 6 分 ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎

资料: 10.8万

进入主页

人气:

10000+的老师在这里下载备课资料