四川省资阳市2017-2018学年八年级英语下学期学业质量检测试题
本试卷分第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。第Ⅰ卷1至8页。第Ⅱ卷9至10页。共120分。考试时间120分钟。
答题前，考生务必认真核对条形码上的姓名和准考证号，无误后将本人的姓名、准考证号和座位号填写在答题卡上的相应位置。同时将答题卡背面上方相应的座位号涂黑。答卷时，考生务必将答案涂写在答题卡上，答在试卷上无效。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第Ⅰ卷（选择题，共75分）
注意事项：
每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案。
第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话，从题中所给的3个选项中选出与其意思相符的图片，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读一遍。
1. What subject is Tom learning?
A B C
A B C
A B C
2. When was John born?
3. What’s the father’s advice?
4. What did Nick find on the map just now?
A B C
A B C
5. Which character does Tony like best?
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. Who is Jack’s best friend?
A. Peter. B. Lisa. C. Sandy.
7. What does Lisa think of Sandy?
A. Friendly. B. Funny. C. Active.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. Where are the two speakers probably talking?
A. In a hospital. B. In a library. C. In a restaurant.
9. What’s probably relationship between the two speakers?
A. Mother and son. B. Doctor and patient (病人). C. Teacher and student.
10. How long has the man had a cold?
A. For three days. B. For two weeks. C. For one day.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. How does Grace like going to the mountains?
A. It’s boring. B. It’s tiring. C. It’s relaxing.
12. What will they do this weekend?
A. Go camping. B. Go shopping. C. Go fishing.
13. What will they need?
A. A camera. B. A tent. C. An Mp4 player.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. Who was sent to the hospital?
A. Helen. B. Jeff. C. Alan.
15. Which subject may Helen be good at?
A. Math. B. English. C. Chinese.
16. What should the girl do?
A. Call Helen.
B. Meet Helen in the park.
C. Go to the hospital to see Helen.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. When did the speaker come to China?
A. When he was a kid. B. After he left college. C. At least two years ago.
18. Why did the speaker come to China?
A. To make friends. B. To study Chinese. C. To eat Chinese food.
19. How many classes does the speaker have each day?
A. Seven. B. Four. C. Three.
20. What does the speaker often do at his Chinese friends’ home?
A. Do sports. B. Have dinner. C. Cook food.
第二部分 英语知识运用（一）（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
21. We all like watching the TV program Readers Saturday evening.
A. in B. on C. at D. for
22. Mary, keep away from the fire, you will get burnt(烧伤).
A. or B. so C. but D. and
23. There are apples in the basket.
A. little B. a little C. much D. a few
24. stay up too late. It’s bad for your health.
A. Do B. Not C. Don’t D. Please not
25. － we meet at the park at 7 o’clock?
－ OK! See you later!
A. Can B. Shall C. Must D. Do
26. －Linda, I called you this morning, but nobody answered the phone.
－I’m sorry. I football with my friends then.
A. play B. played C. am playing D. was playing
27. My teacher said I was at reading than listening.
A. good B. well C. better D. best
28. is difficult to climb the tall tree.
A. It B. This C. That D. One
29. Neither he nor I wrong.
A. be B. am C. is D. are
30. We’ll not go out for a walk if it ______ this afternoon.
A. is raining B. will rain C. rains D. rain
第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
I used to live in my own room alone. But one day it all changed when my brother Jack asked to share my 31 . At first, my parents said “no” to him, but at last my mother agreed. I cried and asked my parents not to do this, 32 it didn’t work.
As soon as Jack entered (进来) my room, it began to become 33 . To my anger, he often left his unwashed clothes and toys everywhere!
One evening, I was doing some 34 on my computer while Jack was listening to music. 35 , I left my seat to get some water. A big surprise was waiting for me when I 36 . He was using my computer to play games. I had forgotten to save (保存) the homework. Sadly, he had closed my program 37 saving it—all I had done had disappeared (消失)! I 38 him. He cried a lot as my mother came and beat him. My mother also asked him to leave my room at once.
Then I did my homework 39 . At 10:00 pm. I finished it. When I was going to turn off the 40 , I saw the photo of my 41 that he had put on my table. I looked at his lovely face and remembered how 42 he was when my mom beat him. I really felt 43 . I went to see what he was doing. I found he was 44 in my parents’ bed. I kissed his face. He woke up, got up and said, “I’m sorry. I won’t bring you any more trouble.”
I was so moved (感动的) and said, “From now on, my room is not only mine. It is 45 !” That very night, Jack and I shared not only the room, but the bed.
31. A. clothes B. food C. room D. toys
32. A. because B. but C. or D. so
33. A. dirty B. empty C. quiet D. tidy
34. A. business B. homework C. reading D. shopping
35. A. Later B. Instead C. However D. Sometimes
36. A. danced B. fell C. returned D. slept
37. A. after B. by C. for D. without
38. A. agreed with B. heard from C. looked after D. shouted at
39. A. all the time B. once again C. for ever D. in the end
40. A. computer B. fan C. radio D. TV
41. A. brother B. cousin C. father D. grandfather
42. A. clever B. happy C. sad D. silly
43. A. bored B. excited C. scared D. sorry
44. A. jumping B. sleeping C. sitting D. singing
45. A. his B. hers C. ours D. theirs
第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 阅读理解（共16小题；每小题1.5分，满分24分）
阅读下列短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Mr. Green made a robot. He could say only one sentence—“There is no doubt (疑问) about it.” The robot always repeated the same words when you spoke to him.
One day, Mr. Green needed lots of money and he took the robot to the market to sell him. “Who will buy my robot? He is very smart,” he shouted, “Twenty thousand dollars for my robot!”
A man was surprised that he was asking for so much money. Instead of asking Mr. Green why he wanted so much money, he decided to speak to the robot. “Are you worth (值) twenty thousand dollars?” he asked the robot. “There is no double about it,” answered the robot.
The man liked the robot’s answer so much that he bought him and carried him home. But very soon he found that the robot could say nothing else. He was sorry he bought the
robot. He stood in front of the robot and said, “How foolish I was to throw so much money away！”
“There is no doubt about it,” said the robot.
46. How many sentences could the robot say?
A. One word. B. Ten sentences.
C. Hundreds of sentences. D. Only one sentence.
47. Why did Mr. Green sell the robot?
A. The robot was old. B. The robot was bad.
C. Mr. Green didn’t like it. D. Mr. Green needed much money.
48. The man decided to buy the robot after he ______.
A. saw the robot B. heard the robot’s answer
C. know the price D. made friend with Mr. Green
49. At the end of the story, the man probably felt the robot was ______.
A. sorry for him B. afraid of him
C. laughing at him D. trying to surprise him
B
People’s likes and dislikes are different, so they have different ambitions (愿望). Now let’s look at the following characters’ likes, dislikes and ambitions.
I enjoy helping people, but I can’t stand working at nights and on weekends. I want to be a doctor or a social worker.
—Jim
I’m good at explaining things and I really like children. I can’t stand working long time. I think I’d like to be a nurse or a teacher.
—Jill
I really like doing things with my hands. I also enjoy working with wood. I don’t enjoy working in the same place every day, and I don’t like being in noisy places. I think I’d like to be a factory worker or a carpenter (木匠).
I’m really interested in meeting people, and I enjoy wearing different clothes every day. I’m not so good at organizing my time or computers. I am going to be a model or an accountant (会计师).
—Maria
—Anita
50. What does Jim want to be?
A. A worker or a teacher. B. A model or an accountant.
C. A carpenter or a worker. D. A doctor or a social worker.
51. Who doesn’t enjoy working in the same place?
A. Jim. B. Anita. C. Jill. D. Maria.
52. Who likes wearing different clothes every day?
A. Anita. B. Jill. C. Maria. D. Jim.
53. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Jill can’t stand working long time.
B. Jim likes working at nights and on weekends.
C. Anita really likes doing things with her parents.
D. Maria is good at organizing her time or computers.
C
Rainforests (热带雨林) cover six percent of the earth’s surface (表面). There are rainforests in many parts of the world. About 75 percent of animals live in rainforests. There are many beautiful birds, insects and so on. Some of them live on the ground, some live under the ground and others live in the trees, over 30 meters from the ground. It is always hot in the rainforests and the ground is always wet. It is also very dark there.
The rainforests are very important for us. We need them! The trees and other plants in the forest help to make the air clean. They also help to control (控制) the temperature.
Unfortunately, in many places, the rainforests are in danger. For example, many years ago there was a large rainforest in Java, but now there is nothing. The same thing happens now in many other parts of the world. It’s time to take action to save the rainforests. We can never imagine a world without rainforests. If rainforests disappeared from the earth, we wouldn’t find any trees, flowers or fruits. What’s more, we wouldn’t get clean air, and we wouldn’t find any animals. The worst result would be that we wouldn’t find any humans.
54. How many animals live in rainforests?
A. About thirty percent. B. About ninety percent.
C. About three quarters. D. About seventy-five percent.
55. The trees and other plants in the forest ______.
A. make the air dirty B. control the temperature
C. pollute the rivers D. stop the noise pollution
56. What does the underlined word “Unfortunately” mean in Chinese?
A. 不幸地 B. 事实上 C. 幸运地 D. 坦白说
57. What’s the main idea of the last paragraph?
A. It is about the weather in the rainforests.
B. It is about animals living in the rainforests.
C. It is about people who don’t care about animals.
D. It is about the result of not protecting the rainforests.
D
All living things on the earth need other living things to live. Nothing lives alone. Most animals must live in a group, and even a plant grows close together with others of the same kind. Sometimes one living thing kills another, one eats and the other is eaten. Each kind of life eats another kind of life in order to live, and together they form a food chain (食物链). Some food chains are simple, while others are not. But all food chains begin with the sun, and all food chains become broken up if one of the links (联系) disappears.
All life needs sunlight to live on. But only plants can use sunlight directly (直接). Plants are “factories”. They make food from sunlight, water and things in the soil (土壤) and air.
Plants feed all other living things. Animals can only use the sun’s energy (能量) after it has been changed into food by plants. Some animals feed directly on plants, others eat smaller animals. Meat-eating animals are only eating plants indirectly.
What about human beings? We are members of many food chains. We eat wheat (小麦), rice, vegetables, fruits and so on. We also eat meat and drink milk. But humans often break up the food chains. They kill wild animals. They also make rivers, lakes and seas dirty. When these rivers, lakes and seas are polluted, the fish in them cannot be eaten. If men
eat the fish, they will get strange diseases (疾病).
Each form of life is linked to all others. Breaking the links puts all life in danger.
58. How does every living thing on the earth live?
A. Each plant can live alone.
B. Each animal can live alone.
C. If living things want to live, they must kill each other.
D. Every living thing on the earth cannot live without others.
59. Which living things can use the sun’s energy directly?
A. Animals. B. Plants. C. Humans. D. All living things.
60. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Some life needs sunlight to live on.
B. Humans often break up the food chains.
C. Plants make food from sunlight and water.
D. If men eat the wild animal, they will get strange diseases.
61. What is the best title of this passage?
A. Animals. B. Plants. C. Food Chains. D. Living Things.
第二节 补全短文（共4小题；每小题1.5分，满分6分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余选项。
My hobby is playing chess — one of the greatest games in the world. My mum taught me how to play when I was seven years old. 62 But then, on my eighth birthday, I won for the first time. I nearly always beat her now.
To learn the rules doesn’t take long. One day is enough. But if you want to be good, you have to practice for years. 63 — just a chess set and someone to play with. Chess sets can be very cheap, or quite expensive. Some people collect chess sets as a hobby, but I enjoy playing.
64 We meet on Wednesday every week to practice. I am the best player in the club,
and the captain（队长）of the school chess team. This year we won the All England Schools Championship (冠军赛).
I'm saving up my money to buy a chess computer. They are very expensive, but also very good for practice. 65 I’m sure I will be a world chess champion some day.
A. I have many chess sets.
B. There is a chess club in our school.
C. You don't need much to play chess.
D. She beat me every time for the first year.
E. That way, I’ll always have someone to play with.
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题，共45分）
第四部分 英语知识运用（二）（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
从方框中选择单词，并用其正确形式填空，然后将答案写到答题卡相应的位置上。每词限用一次。
spend
time
give
happy
children
trouble
have
study
for
unable
Kate is a very kind girl. She is always willing to help people who are in 66 . Now Kate is 67 in the university of Texas. At the same time, she is volunteering to teach at Heart House in her free 68 . Heart House is a local (当地) after-school program for children. It provides some extra education 69 those children who are not doing well in their studies.
Kate 70 also made a website (网站) for Heart House. In this way, more people have more chances to learn about Heart House and help the 71 there.
Because of Kate’s website, every week 125 volunteers 72 about four hours helping the children at Heart House now. “Without Kate’s website, Heart House would be 73 to have enough volunteers. We thanked her so much. ” the program leader says.
“I feel happy to teach those kids how to study. The 74 thing is that I can also
learn a lot from them. I won't 75 up volunteering after graduation (毕业). I hope to continue teaching kids who need help,” Kate says.
第五部分 写作（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文并回答问题，然后将答案写到答题卡相应的位置上。请注意词数要求。
It was a cold night. The taxi driver didn't take even one passenger all day. When he went by the train station, he saw a young man coming out with two bags in his hands. So he drove to him and asked, “Where are you going, sir?”
“To the MP Hotel,” the young man answered. When the taxi driver heard this, he didn't feel happy any more. The young man would give him only three dollars because the hotel was near the train station. But suddenly, he had an idea. He took the young man through many streets of the big city. After a long time, they arrived at the hotel. “Here we are! You should pay me seventeen dollars, please,” the taxi driver said to the young man. “What? Seventeen dollars! Do you think I'm a fool? Only last week, I took a taxi from the train station to this hotel and I only gave the driver fifteen dollars. I know how much I have to pay for the trip.”
76. What was the weather like that night? (No more than 1 word)
77. How many passengers did the taxi driver take before he saw a young man? (No more than 1 word)
78. To make more money, what did the driver do? (No more than 12 words)
79. When did the young man come to the MP Hotel last time? (No more than2 words)
80. From the passage, we can know who is the fool man? (No more than 3 words)
第二节 书面表达（满分20分）
假如你叫李华。最近，你收到美国笔友Mike的来信，想了解你的学习生活。请根据下列提示用英语写封回信。
1. 简要介绍你的老师及同学情况；
2. 简要介绍你的课内外学习及活动情况。
注意：
1. 词数60左右；
2. 文中不得出现真实人名及学校名。
Dear Mike,
Yours,
Li Hua
资阳市2017-2018学年度学业质量检测
八年级英语答案及评分意见
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分（每小题1分，满分20分）
1-5 BACBC 6-10 ACABA 11-15 BABCA 16-20 CCBAB
第二部分（每小题1分，满分25分）
21-25 BADCB 26-30 DCABC 31-35 CBABA 36-40 CDDBA
41-45 ACDBC
第三部分（每小题1.5分，满分30分）
46-50 DDBCD 51-55 BCADB 56-60 ADDBB 61-65 CDCBE
第Ⅱ卷
第四部分（每小题1.5分，满分15分）
一、参考答案
66. trouble 67. studying 68. time 69. for 70. has
71. children 72. spend 73. unable 74. happiest 75. give
二、评分意见
1．每题按3个档次给分，依次为1.5分、1分、0分。
2．选词正确、语法形式正确，得1.5分。
3．选词正确，但语法形式错误，得1分。
4．选词正确，但拼写错误，得0分。
5．选词错误，得0分。
第五部分（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （每小题2分；满分10分）
一、参考答案
76. Cold.
77. None.
78. He took the young man through many streets (of the big city).
79. Last week.
80. The young man. / The young passenger.
二、评分意见
1．每题按5个档次给分，依次为2分、1.5分、1分、0.5分和0分。
2．意思相符，语法、结构正确，拼写无误，得2分。
3．语法与拼写错误，错误1到2个，扣0.5分，3个及3个以上扣1分；相同错误按1个计算。大小写和标点出错原则上不扣分。
4．超出词数扣0.5分。
第二节（满分20分）
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．词数少于40，从总分中减去2分。
4．评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
5．拼写与标点符号是准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6．如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点
1. 简要介绍你的老师及同学情况；
2. 简要介绍你的课内外学习及活动情况。
三、各档次给分范围和要求
第五档（17~20分）
完成了试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点。
应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（13~16分）
完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因为尝试较复杂结构或词汇所致。
应用了简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（9-12分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（5~8分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或款描述一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯。
信息未能清楚传达给读者。
第一档（1~4分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
四、说明：
1．内容要点可用不同方式表达。
2．对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。
五、Possible version: 略
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