山东德州六校2017-2018七年级英语下册第二次联考试卷(人教新目标版)
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山东省德州市六校2017-2018学年七年级英语下学期第二次联考试题 ‎ 温馨提示:‎ 1. 本试题共六大题,分选择题和非选择题两种类型;选择题计80分,非选择题计70分;试卷总分150分,考试时间120分钟。‎ 2. 考生应将选择题答案填涂在答题卡上,注意事项请参照答题卡要求。‎ 3. 相信以最佳的精神和心理状态,认真审题,沉着答题,你一定会成功!‎ 一、听力部分(共20小题,每小题1.5分,总计30分。)‎ Ⅰ.听句子,选出相应的图片,每个句子读一遍。‎ A B C D E ‎ 1.______ 2.______ 3.______ 4.______ 5.______‎ Ⅱ.听五段对话,回答每段对话后面的问题,每段对话读两遍。‎ 22‎ ‎6.A. Mary’s. B. Kate’s. C. Nancy’s.‎ ‎7.A. His mobile phone. ‎ B. His bag. ‎ C. His computer.‎ ‎8.A. A picture. ‎ B. Lingling’s name. ‎ C. Lingling’s number.‎ ‎9.A. At the lost and found office.‎ ‎ B. In her schoolbag.‎ ‎ C. We don’t know.‎ ‎10. A. In New York. B. In Sydney. C. In Toronto.‎ Ⅲ. 听短文,请根据所听的内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,短文读两遍。‎ ‎11. What’s the little dog’s name?‎ ‎ A. Lanlan. B. Laifu. C. Fanfan.‎ 22‎ ‎12. What colour is the dog?‎ ‎ A. Black. B. White. C. Grey.‎ ‎13. What does the dog help Mr.Li do?‎ ‎ A. Get his shirt and shorts.‎ ‎ B. Get his shirt and shoes.‎ ‎ C. Get his gloves and shoes.‎ ‎14. What does the dog like doing?‎ ‎ A. Playing with toys. B. Playing with balls. ‎ C. Playing with cats.‎ ‎15. Who took the dog home?‎ ‎ A. Mr.Li’s friend. B. Maybe someone. C. A bad man.‎ Ⅳ.听短文,根据短文内容填空,每空一词,短文读两遍。‎ Many people aren’t 16. ______ with their things. They often leave things on planes or on trains when they’re in a 17. ______. Sometimes there’re some 18. ______ things such as 22‎ ‎ two 19. ______ and a small dog here. 20. ______ of people come to the lost and found office every day. They want to look for their own things.‎ 二、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2.5分,计50分。)‎ 阅读下列短文,然后从每一小题A、B、C、D中选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案。‎ A House for Rent(出租)‎ ‎2 sunny bedrooms with one kitchen,$500 one month.‎ Call Mr.White at 555-7843‎ Taxi Driver Wanted Full or part time.‎ 22‎ Call Mark at 555-7296 between 9 am and 5 pm from Monday to Friday.‎ Lost Dog Small size.‎ Black and white,short hair.‎ Call David at 555-6238.‎ Found A nice watch.‎ Made in Switzerland.‎ Is this your watch?‎ Call George at 555-9767.‎ ‎21.If you want to rent the house for half a year,you need to pay ______.‎ A.$500 B.$1500 C.$3000 D.$6000‎ ‎22.If you want to work as a taxi driver,you can call________.‎ A.555-7843 B. 555-7296 C. 555-6238 D. 555-9767‎ 22‎ ‎23.________ lost a small,black and white dog.‎ A.Mr.White B.Mark C.David D.George ‎24.You cannot call Mark on _______.‎ A.Monday B.Wednesday C.Friday D.Sunday ‎25.Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?‎ A.There is only one bedroom and a kitchen in the house.‎ B.We can know the salary(薪水) of the taxi driver.‎ C.The watch is made in Japan.‎ D.George found a watch.‎ B Music teachers wanted for Zhaoyang Middle School We want two music teachers for our school music club .You need to be able to play the guitar or the violin and be good with kids. ‎ ‎ Time : 3: 20 pm -----4;20 pm Monday to Friday every week.‎ 22‎ ‎ Pay: 100 yuan an hour. ‎ ‎ Phone number : 372-3966‎ ‎ Email address: zhaoyangmsmc @126.com ‎ ‎ Address: 326 Bridge Street.‎ ‎ Art teacher wanted Can you paint? Can you draw? Do you like kids and want to be with them ? Then you can be in Yi xing Art Club .‎ Time: 8:00 am---10:00am Saturday and Sunday every week.‎ Pay: 80 yuan an hour.‎ Phone number : 693-8925‎ Email address: yixingartclub @ 163. com Address: 165 Zhangshan Road.‎ ‎26.Zhaoyang Middle School needs ______.‎ A.a music teacher B.an art teacher ‎ 22‎ C.two art teachers D.two music teachers ‎27. How many hours does a music teacher need to work every week?‎ A. 5 B. 7 C. 8 D.10‎ ‎28.A music teacher can get about ______ in a week ?‎ A.100 yuan B.1000yuan ‎ C.2000 yuan D.500 yuan ‎29.An art teacher needs to start to work at ______ at the weekend.‎ A.7:00 am B.8:00am C.3:20pm D.4:20pm ‎30.If Andrew wants to be an art teacher ,he can ______.‎ A.call 693-8925. ‎ B.go to 165 Zhangshan Road.‎ C.send emails to yixingartclub@163.com.‎ D.A、B and C ‎ C.‎ 22‎ ‎ My name is Joe. Do you want to know about my hobbies? I like music and I can sing very well.There are many clubs in our school and I want to join the Music Club. ‎ ‎ Lisa and Linda are my friends .Lisa is a girl and she likes playing chess very much. She wants to join the Chess Club. Do you know Linda's hobbies? Well,let me tell you. Linda’s favourite sport is swimming. But she does not want to join the Swimming Club. She wants to join the Music Club. Why? Because she wants to be in the same club as me. ‎ ‎ David is also my friend. He likes English and he wants to join the English Club. ‎ ‎31.What does Joe like? ‎ A.music B.chess C.reading D.swimming ‎32.What club does Linda want to join ? ‎ A.the Music Club B.the Chess Club ‎ C.the Swimming Club D.the English Club.‎ ‎33.______ wants to join the English Club .‎ A.Joe B.Lisa C.Linda D.David.‎ 22‎ ‎34.How many friends of Joe’s are mentioned (提到) in the passage?‎ A.Two B.Three C.Four D.Five ‎35.Which of the following is true?‎ A.Linda’s favourite sport is running. ‎ B.Lisa wants to be in the same club as Joe.‎ C.Joe can dance well. ‎ D.David likes English.‎ D Hello! I am Mary. I am going to have a busy weekend.‎ On Saturday morning,I am going to the Beach Park with my friends.We are going to ride bikes there because we can do some sightseeing on the way.We are going to play on the beach.In the midday,we are going to have a picnic in the park.In the afternoon,we are going to visit our English teacher.She wants us to go to her home and help us with our English.In the evening,I’m going to visit my aunt with my mother,because it’s my cousin’s birthday.There 22‎ ‎ is going to be a party in her house.‎ On Sunday morning,I’m going to the bookstore with my good friends.I’m going to buy some storybooks.After lunch,I’m going to do sports with my brother.In the evening,I’m going to watch TV and clean my room.How busy I am!‎ ‎36.Mary is going to ______ on Sunday.‎ A. The bookstore B. her aunt’s ‎ C. the park D. her English teacher’s ‎37.Mary is going to the Beach Park ______ .‎ A. with her mother B. by bike ‎ C. on a bus D. with her teacher ‎38.Mary is going to have her lunch ______ on Saturday.‎ A.in the park B.in her teacher’s home ‎ C. at her aunt’s home D. at her home ‎39.Why is Mary going to visit her aunt’s?‎ 22‎ A.Because her mother is going there.‎ B.Because she wants to learn English from her cousin.‎ C.Because it’s her cousin’s birthday.‎ D.Because she wants to have supper there.‎ ‎40.Mary is going to clean her room on _______ .‎ A.Saturday morning B. Saturday evening ‎ C.Sunday morning D. Sunday evening 三、短文还原(共5空,每空2分,计10分。) ‎ A:Hi,Jenny.(41)__________ ‎ B:Sure.My parents are going to take me to visit my grandparents on Saturday.‎ A:Great! (42)_________‎ B:My father is going to drive us there.‎ A:I see.(43)_____________‎ B:I’m going to do the housework at home.‎ 22‎ A:What a good girl!‎ B:(44)___________ What are your plans?‎ A:I’m going to go over English on Saturday and play football on Sunday.‎ B:Good plans!(45)__________‎ A:OK!See you then!‎ B:See you!‎ A: Thank you!‎ B: How are you going there?‎ C: What is she going to do?‎ D: What about your Sunday?‎ E:I would like to join you on Sunday after I finish my housework.‎ F:Do you have any plans for the weekend?‎ G:It’s going to be a fantastic weekend!‎ 22‎ 四、 综合填空(共20空,每空1.5分,计30分)‎ 阅读下面的短文,根据短文内容,将方框内所给的词填入空白处,必要时进行词性变化。‎ A paint,dance,guitar,do,well,club,swim,with,good,join ‎ Daming is a(46) ______ boy.He wants to join a(47) ________. What club (48)______he want to join? He likes sports.He can swim.So he can(49)_______ the(50) _______ Club.He is good (51)________ kids.He can sing and (52)________ .‎ But he can’t play the(53) ________ .He likes(54) _________. But he can’t paint (55)_________ .‎ B watch,tell,he,whose,find,careful with,lose,hers,‎ be,what about ‎ ‎ Here (56)________ many things in the lost and(57) ________ box.(58)________ wallet is 22‎ ‎ this? Oh,there’s Lily’s name on it.Maybe it’s (59)_______.(60)_________the crayons? Oh,they are Jim’s.Jim,you must be(61) ________ your things.There are also two(62) _____________ and some erasers.Are they Jack’s? He often (63)_______ his things everywhere.Look!(64)____________name is on the erasers,so they are his.Please(65) __________ him to look after his things carefully.‎ 五、阅读表达(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)‎ 阅读短文,根据题目要求完成各小题。‎ ‎(A)欢迎来到我们的俱乐部。Are you tired after school? Do you want to have fun ? Our club is good place for you.It is very big.It is in the middle of the city.We have ten sports teachers and five art teachers. Here you can learn to play chess and tennis.You can also sing and dance.They are interesting.(B)We work nine hours each day on weekends. We have a food store.You can have lunch or dinner here.Come and have a good time here!‎ 任务一:翻译句子 22‎ ‎66.将文中(A)处画线句子翻译成英语。‎ ‎____________________________________________________.‎ ‎67.将文中(B)处画线句子翻译成汉语。‎ ‎____________________________________________________.‎ 任务二:判断句子正(T)误(F)‎ ‎68.The club is very big and has ten sports teachers.( )‎ ‎69.A clothes store is in the club.( )‎ 任务三:回答问题 ‎70.How many teachers are there in the club?‎ ‎____________________________________________________.‎ 六、书面表达(共1题,计25分)‎ 根据表格内容写一篇80词左右的英语短文,注意使用正确的时态。‎ 周末计划 22‎ 周六 周日 上午 去看望爷爷奶奶 和父母一起去野餐 下午 上钢琴课 和朋友一起看电影 晚上 查看电子邮件、做作业 复习功课 要求:‎ ‎1.自拟题目,在以上表格内容的基础上可适当发挥。‎ ‎2.语言通顺,要点齐全,条理清晰,书写规范。‎ 22‎ 七年级英语学科试题 参考答案、评分说明 一、 听力 ‎1-5 DCAEB ‎6-10 CABAC 11-15 BABBB ‎16.careful 17.hurry 18.strange 19.birds 20. Hundreds 评分说明:‎ ‎1-20题每小题1.5分;与答案不符不得分。‎ ‎20.Hundreds首字母必须大写,小写不得分。‎ 二、 阅读理解(每题2.5分,共50分)‎ A:21-25 CBCDD B:26-30 DADBD C:31-35 AADBD 22‎ D:36-40 ABCCD 评分说明:‎ ‎21-40题,每题2.5分,与答案不符不得分。‎ 一、 短文还原(每空2分,共10分)‎ ‎41-45 FBDAG 评分说明:‎ 每空2分,共10分;与答案不符不得分。‎ 二、 综合填空(每空1.5分,共30分)‎ A:‎ ‎46.good 47.club 48.does 49.join 50.Swim(S大写,小写不得分)51.with 52.dance 53.guitar 54.paint 55.well B:‎ ‎56.are 57.found 58.Whose(首字母大写) 59.hers 60.What about(首字母大写)61.careful with 62.watches 63.loses 64.His (首字母大写) 65.tell 22‎ 与答案不符不给分 一、 阅读表达题(每空2分,共10分)‎ 66. Welcome to our club.‎ 67. 在周末,我们每天工作9个小时。‎ 68. T 69. F 70. Fifteen ∕ 15 ∕ There are fifteen teachers in the club.‎ 虽与答案表达方式不同,但与所给参考答案意思一致,无语言错误,也可酌情给分。‎ 二、 写作 ‎ 评分说明:(作文题目占1分,无题目扣1分)‎ 要求考生用适当的时态、语态、句式和词语,完整准确地表达所提示的内容,并对开放性内容进行适当发挥,书写工整,分五档评分:‎ ‎1.(18~20 分)很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有的内容要点,结构完整,语句通畅,意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇,语法和词汇错误极少,书写规范。‎ 22‎ ‎2.(14~17 分)较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有的内容要点,结构较为完整,‎ 语句完整,意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少,书写较为规范。‎ ‎3.(10~13 分)基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点,结构欠完整,少数语句不通顺,意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,书写基本规范。‎ ‎4.(6~9 分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点,结构不完整,意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,影响理解,书写欠规范。‎ ‎5.(0~5 分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点,结构不完整,多数语句不完整或者意思不明,语法和词汇错误很多,书写不规范。‎ ‎【评分原则】‎ ‎1. 总分 20 分,按 5 个档次给分。‎ ‎2. 评分时,先跟据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量.确定或调整档次,最后给出得分。‎ ‎3. 凡内容完整但总词数不足,可在本题总得分中扣去 1-2 分。‎ ‎4. 凡内容空白,抄袭阅读理解或所写内容根本与写作要求无关者一律得 0 分。‎ 22‎ ‎5. 如与所提供例文相似度极高但书写认真规范者可得 16-20 分;与所提供例文相似度极高但书 写不规范可内容尚能看清者可得 11-15 分;与所提供例文相似度极高但书写不规范且不能看清内容并有抄袭范文嫌疑者可得 0-6 分 ‎6.作文题目占1分 22‎

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