浙江省桐乡市实验中学等五校2013-2014学年第一学期期中联考
八年级英语试卷
一、听力部分(20分)
第一节,听句子,选择图片。(5分)
A B C D E
1._______ 2._______ 3.________ 4.________ 5._________
第二节:听下面小对话,回答问题,每段对话读一遍。(5分)
6. The woman goes to the music store_______
A once a week B twice a week C three times a week
7. What are they talking about?
A. The teacher B. The TV C. The film
8. Which country is the letter from?
A. China B. America C. Japan
9. How long can the boy keep the book?
A. Two days B. Two weeks C. Three days
10. What would Kate like to have?
A. A cup of tea B. A bottle of milk C. A glass of water.
第三节: 听独白,选择正确的选项,独白读两遍。(10分)
11. Which city is Maggie’s favorite?
A. Beijing B. Shanghai C. Hangzhou
12. When did she go there?
A. In January B. In May C. In October
13. What did she do?
A. Visited friends B. Visited her teacher C. Visited grandparents
14. How was the weather?
A. Hot and wet B. Sunny and hot C. Sunny but cool
15. What did she think of her vacation?
A. Tired B. Relaxing C. Terrible
二.笔试部分(80分)
四、单项选择(15分)
16.When you read English,_____ translate every word into Chinese.
A. try not to B. try to C. don’t try D. not try
17. _______ is difficult for a foreigner to learn Chinese.
A. That B. This C. It D. What
18. Remember not to talk______ when you are in reading room.
A. slowly B. loudly C. quickly D. quietly
19. My brother was born _________ March 26, 1998.
A. in B. on C. at D. from
20. It takes about twelve minutes _______ and five minutes by bike.
A .walking B. walk C. to walk D. walks
21. A: Can you come to my home for dinner? B: Yes,________.
A. I’d love to B. I will C. I can’t come D. I do
22. Steven hopes _______ his favourite movie, Avatar, again one day.
A. see B. to see C. seeing D. saw
23. Boys and girls, I have _____ to tell you.
A. anything interesting B. interesting something
C. interesting anything D. something interesting
24. The population of Jiaxing is more than four______.
A. million B. million of C. millions of D. millions
25. You should have a _____ lifestyle, or you can’t be in good _____.
A.health , health B. health , healthy
C.healthy , health D. healthy , healthy
26. Practice makes perfect, _______ you speak, ______ your spoken English will be.
A. The more, the good B. The much, the good
C. The much, the better D. The more, the better.
27.Lucy is a____ girl from America.
A. ten-years-old B. ten-year-old C. ten year old D. ten years old
28. I find it’s very hard ____ the question.
A. to answer B. answers C. answering D .answered
29. Of all the students, David lives_______ from school.
A. far B. farest C. farther D. farthest
30. How was the film you saw yesterday? ----____________.
A. It’s by Zhang yimou. B. It was during 1978
C. It lasted for two hours. D. It was interesting.
五、完形填空(10分)
There are four seasons in __31___ of the countries. But the weather is not always the same. In England, winter is not very cold and summer is not very hot. There is not a great difference between summer and winter. Do you know why?
England has a warm winter and a cool summer because it is an ___32___country.In winter the sea is warmer than the land. The winds __33___the sea bring __34___air to England. In summer the sea is cooler than the land. The winds from the sea bring cool air to England. The west winds blow over England all the year around. They blow from the southwest. They are wet winds. They also bring ___35___to England. So England has ___36___rain all the year .Sometimes it rains heavily. The west of England is wetter than the east.
In Canada they have four seasons, too. But the average( 平均 )temperature is very
low. Spring is usually very ___37___in most part of the country. It comes in February. People can still go skating in some places. Summer is usually very cool. Early in the morning the weather is so cold that people usually wear sweaters. Autumn comes ___38___summer. Canadians like to watch maples(枫叶) in the park or on the hills. They are really
beautiful. Winter is the__39___ season of the year. It’s often freezing cold. There is thick ice on the river or lake. Children like to go skating there. Of course, they should wear warm, thick coats, __40___they will catch a cold.
31. A. more B. most C. many D. much
32. A. land B. island C. big D. small
33. A. from B. to C. come D. go
34. A. hot B. cold C. warm D. cool
35. A. wind B. snow C. rain D. wet
36. A. a little B. a few C. a bit of D. a lot of
37. A. warm B. hot C. cool D. cold
38. A. after B. before C. with D. in
39. A. cold B. colder C. coldest D. warmest
40. A. and B. or C. but D. so
六、阅读理解(30分)
( A )
This weekend Bob and his friends went to a mountain. When they got there, they put up their tents(帐篷) and then rode their horses to the forest to see how the trees were growing.
In the afternoon, when they were going back, it started to snow. Then minutes later, they couldn’t find the road. Bob knew there were two roads. One road went to the camp(营地), and the other went to his house. But all was white now. Everything was the same. How could he and his friends go back to the camp? Soon Bob had an idea. Maybe the horses could help them. They can let the horses take them back! But what would happen if the horses took the road to his house? That was going to be a long trip.
It was getting late. They rode on and on. At last the horses stopped. Where were they? No one could tell. Bob looked around. What was that under the tree? It was one of their tents!
41. Bob and his friends went to the forest to _________.
A. put up their camp B. find their way home
C. look at the mountain in the snow D. see the trees
42. Bob and his friends couldn’t find their way back because ________.
A. there was only one road to the camp
B. they didn’t know where they were
C. there were no roads in the mountain at all
D. the white snow covered(覆盖) everything
43. The horses stopped because _________.
A. it was getting late
B. they were tired after running for a long way
C. they knew that they got to the camp
D. they saw Bob’s house
44. The story happened __________.
A. on a cold winter day B. on a dark rainy evening
C. at their school D. in summer
( B )
Our world is getting smaller and smaller. We can fly around the world in less than 50 hours. The newest plane can fly at 600 miles an hour. You can have breakfast in Tokyo and supper in Paris.
But hundreds of years ago, it took people a long time to go around the world. Magellan's(麦哲伦) men were the first to make that trip. They went by ship and it took them more than two years. On September 20, 1510,he left Spain(西班牙) with five ships and 240men. He was killed in the Philippines(菲律宾). More than two years later, on December 21, 1512 , only one of the five ships with just 31 men returned to Spain. Magellan's trip taught us that the world was round and that people could go around the world.
44. People can fly around the world in ______.
A. just 50 hours B. less than 50 hours
C. more than 50 hours D. more than 40 hours 5
45. “You can have breakfast in Tokyo and supper in Paris.” means that ______. A. people can have breakfast and supper in Tokyo
B. people can have breakfast and supper in Paris
C. people can have breakfast and supper both in Tokyo and in Paris
D. the world is becoming smaller
46. Magellan’s men were the first to make the trip around the world, which took them ______.
A. more than two years B. two years C. less than two years D. three years47. The trip taught people that the world was ______.
A. poor B. rich C. strong D. round
( C )
Many Chinese people like American country music(乡村音乐 ),such as(例如) the songs of John Denver. But still some people don’t know when country music began.
Country music is from the folk music (民间音乐)of the Appalachian Mountains in the east of America. There, people sang while playing the violin and guitar. They sang about everyday life, love and their problems. So the songs were sometimes a little sad.
One of the most popular country music singers is John Denver, who is also quite famous to the Chinese. For Denver, music was a language that could bring the world together. He says music can bring people together. We will understand(理解) each
other better through(通过) music. People are different in colour and they may speak different languages, but people are the same in mind and body(在心灵和精神方面). All of them love music and can understand music.
The world lost a great man when John Denver died in 1997. But his music and words will live on.
49. American country music is from the _______ music of America.
A. pop B. jazz C. light D. folk
50“Music was a language that could bring the world together” means (意思是)people _______.
A. can sing songs together
B. from all over the world sing the same songs
C. show their feeling (感觉)through music and so they understand each other better
D. know language and music
51.John Denver died in ______.
A. 1997 B. 1990 C. 1996 D. 1999
52.Which sentence is right?
A. Everyone knows when country music began.
B. Country music is from the jazz music.
C. John Denver is famous to Chinese people, too.
D. John Denver doesn’t think music can bring people together.
( D )
Jim lived in a town near New York. His father had a shop there and his mother was a doctor. He was seven years old this year and began to go to school this September. It was a little far(远) from their shop and his father drove a car to take him to school five days a week. So he was never late for school and his teachers liked him very much. It was Monday that day. Miss White was teaching them to count from one to ten in the morning. Jim was studying hard. Soon he could count them. Miss White was happy and asked, “How many people are there in your family, Jim?” Jim stood up and said, “Two, Miss White.” “Who are they?” “My father and my mother.” “Oh?” Miss White was very surprised. She then said, “There are three people in your family.” “But now I’m not at home. I’m at school, you know!”
53. Where did Jim’s father work?
A. In a factory B. In a school C. In a shop D. In a hospital
54. Jim was a student of _______.
A. Grade One B. Grade Two C. Grade Three D. Grade Four
55. How many people are there in Jim’s family?
A. Two B. Three C.Four D. One
七、任务型阅读 ( 共5分,每小题1分)
你知道这些谚语的意思吗?请把他们与旁边的中文配对。
56. Easier said than done. ( ) A. 谁笑到最后,谁笑的最好。
57. Facts speak louder than words. ( ) B. 三个臭皮匠顶个诸葛亮。
58. Who laughs best who laughs last. ( ) C. 说起来容易做起来难。
59. East or west, home is the best. ( ) D. 事实胜于熊辩。
60. Many heads are better than one. ( ) E. 金窝银窝不如自己狗窝。
八、根据括号里的单词或中文填空,注意词的正确形式。( 共5分,每小题1分)
61. Lu Xun is one of ______________ (great) writers of the twentieth century.
62. Lao She was ________ (name)“the People’s Atrist”.
63. After two hours` walk, he felt very ____________.(累)
64.. They are working __________(努力地) to learn English.
65. He always ___________(忘记) his parents’ advice.
九、写作(15分)
A.老虎是国家保护动物,但目前的数量正日趋减少。下面是王力在某校园网上的留言,请用恰当的词将其补充完整,并写下你的建议. ( 共5分,每小题1分)
Dear friends, as we know, tigers are in ____66_____. They are becoming ___67_____ and fewer. The situation is getting very ____68____. In _69_ to protect tigers, the government is _70___ up nature parks. Let’s do something to help tigers.
B. Write about an animal in danger in your province or in your country. Then give your advice on how to protect them better. 以_________ in danger 为题,70词左右(共10分)
The following questions may help you:
What animal is it?
Where does it live?
What does it feed on?
Why is it in danger?
How difficult is the situation?
What can we do to protect it?
听力材料
第一节,听句子,选择图片。(5分)
1. Mr Smith is rich. He can travel around the world by plane.
2. Tom lives near school. So he walks to school.
3. Riding a bike is a good kind of exercise.
4. I usually take the subway to Tian’anmen Square.
5. She goes to school by bus.
第二节:听下面5段小对话。每段对话后有1个小题,请从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。
6. M: How often do you go to the music store?
W: Twice a week.
7. M: The teacher in the film we saw last night is very cool. Do you think so?
W: Yes, the film is very interesting.
8. M: Where’s the letter from?
W: It’s from New York.
9. M: How long may I keep the book?
W: you can keep the book for three days.
10. M: Would you like a cup of tea, Kate?
W: No, I’d like a glass of water.
第二节到此结束。
第三节: 听下面1段独白回答问题。请从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项。听独白前你将有20秒时间来阅读有关内容,听完后将给出10秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
I’m Maggie. I like traveling. I have traveled many cities in China. But my favorite city is Hangzhou. It was October 1st, I went to Hangzhou to visit my friends. I felt very happy when I saw them. The weather was great. The sun was in the blue sky but it was not hot. The wind was really cool. After lunch, we went out and bought lots of nice things in the big stores in
Hangzhou. We also went to the beautiful West Lake and boated in the lake. How relaxing and exciting! We really enjoyed ourselves.
第三节到此结束。
听力测试到此结束!
学校 班级 姓名 学号
装
订
线
答题卷
听力部分(20分)
第一节,听录音,选出句中所包含的信息。每个句子读一遍。(5分,每小题1分)
1.______ 2.______ 3.______ 4.______ 5.______
第二节:听下面小对话,回答问题,每段对话读一遍。(5分,每小题1分)
6.______ 7.______ 8.______ 9.______ 10.______
第三节: 听独白,选择正确的选项,独白读两遍。(10分,每小题2分)
11.______ 12.______ 13.______ 14.______ 15.______
笔试部分(80分)
四、单项选择(15分,每小题1分)
16.______ 17.______ 18.______ 19.______ 20.______ 21.______ 22.______ 23.______ 24.______ 25.______ 26.______ 27.______ 28.______ 29.______ 30.______
五、完形填空(10分,每小题2分)
31.______ 32.______ 33.______ 34.______ 35.______
36.______ 37.______ 38.______ 39.______ 40.______
六、阅读理解(30分,每小题2分)
41.______ 42.______ 43.______ 44.______ 45.______ 46.______ 47.______ 48.______ 49.______ 50.______ 51.______ 52.______ 53.______ 54.______ 55.______
七、任务型阅读 ( 共5分,每小题1分)
56. ______ 57.______ 58.______ 59.______ 60.______
八、根据括号里的单词或中文填空,注意词的正确形式。( 共5分,每小题1分)
61. _____________ 62. __________ 63. _________ 64. _____________ 65. ____________
九、写作(15分)
A.(5分)61. _________ 62. __________ 63. _________ 64. ___________ 65. ____________
B.(10分) ____________ in danger
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ __
参考答案
听力部分
一.1—5 (每小题1分)BADEC
二.6—10 (每小题1分)BABCC
三.11—15 (每小题2分)CCACB
四、单项选择,每小题1分
16—30 ACBBC ABDAC DBADD
五、完形填空,每小题1分
31—40 BBACC DDACB
六、阅读理解,每小题2分
41—55 DDCA BDAD DCAC CAB
七、任务型阅读 ( 共5分,每小题1分)
56-60 CDAFB
八、根据括号里的单词或中文填空,注意词的正确形式。( 共5分,每小题1分)
61. the greatest 62. named 63. tired 64. hard 65. forgets
九、写作(15分)
A. 66.danger 67. fewer 68. difficult 69. order 70. setting
B.略