苏北三市高三年级第三次模拟考试
英 语
说明：1. 本试卷共12页，满分120分，考试时间120分钟。
2. 在答题纸的密封线内填写学校、班级、姓名、考号等，密封线内不要答题。
3. 请将所有答案均按照题号填涂或填写在答题卡/纸相应的答题处，否则不得分。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What’s Mary’s university life like?
A. Exciting. B. Terrible. C. Ordinary.
2. What is the woman doing?
A. Introducing a theater. B. Making invitations. C. Giving directions.
3. What’s the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Classmates. C. Colleagues.
4. What makes the man curious about David Beckham?
A. Why people like him so much.
B. What achievement he has made.
C. How he performs so well.
5. Why will the man quit his job?
A. He finds his work boring.
B. He has got a better position.
C. He doesn’t get on well with the others.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What will the man do during the holiday?
A. Travel. B. Study at home. C. Do some sports.
7. Which sport does the woman like best?
A. Basketball. B. Table tennis. C. Football.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What is the man doing?
A. Preparing for an exam. B. Surfing the Internet. C. Listening to English songs.
9. How does the woman find learning English?
A. Interesting. B. Boring. C. Difficult.
10. What will the woman probably do next?
A. Buy some books. B. Have a class. C. Go to the library.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. Where does the conversation take place?
A. In an office. B. In a hospital. C. In an English class.
12. How long does the woman spend listening to English and music?
A. Almost all the time. B. At least two hours. C. Less than 90 minutes.
13. How can the woman improve her hearing according to the man?
A. By using user-friendly earphones.
B. By listening to music of lower sound levels.
C. By stopping listening to loud music with earphones.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. For what does the woman plan to go to London?
A. Study. B. A visit. C. A business trip.
15. Why does the woman ask about food on the train?
A. She is really hungry.
B. She is nervous without food.
C. It will be time for dinner soon.
16. What prevents the woman taking the 4: 30 train?
A. The number of the platform.
B. The expensive food.
C. Lack of time.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. When is breakfast served?
A. From 7:00 to 9:30. B. From 7:30 to 9:30. C. From 7:00 to 9:00.
18. What are on the first floor?
A. Bedrooms. B. Restaurants. C. Shops.
19. Where can people work out?
A. On the seventh floor. B. On the fifth floor. C. On the third floor.
20. What can we learn from the passage?
A. There’s a telephone in every room.
B. There’s a pub on the sixth floor.
C. There’s a place for sunbathing behind the hotel.
第二部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 单项填空（共15题；每小题1分，满分15分）
请认真阅读下面各题，从题中所给的Ａ、Ｂ、Ｃ、Ｄ四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
21. — Mr. Smith, I’m sorry to bother you, but it’s the third day of June today.
— Oh, _____ rent! I’m sorry it’s late. I’ll write you _____ check right now.
A. the; the B. a; a C. a; the D. the; a
22. Jane, I’ll be in Room 3 discussing with our business partners _____ Mr. Mathews drops in.
A. so that B. if only C. in case D. as if
23. — Why do you choose to work with special needs children?
— I think it will add a new _____ to my life.
A. version B. dimension C. illusion D. occasion
24. — Have you been to Gangtok?
— Actually, I _____ there for three years and then left for home when my mother was ill.
A. had worked B. has worked C. was working D. worked
25. The year of 2016 is the beginning of China’s 13th Five-Year Plan, _____ ecological civilization is an important part.
A. of which B. in which C. for which D. on which
26. Bungee jumping can be very dangerous, but the people who organize it are very careful not to _____ safety.
A. compromise B. compensate C. conduct D. construct
27. — It was fine yesterday.
—_____. And a good day for picnicking, isn’t it?
A. So it is B. So is it C. So it was D. So was it
28. The two companies have agreed on the main items written on the contract _____, but they still have to negotiate the details.
A. in all B. in hand C. in vain D. in general
29. — Did you attend the meeting for the experiment project yesterday?
— Yes, but I don’t think I _____ because my director was there.
A. need have B. needed to C. need to have D. need to
30. — How do you like the book I recommended?
— I have only been able to _____ the first few pages as yet. I hope soon to be able to read
it seriously.
A. figure out B. dip into C. get across D. do with
31. So large is the Pacific, _____ 30% of the earth’s surface, that the energy generated by its warming is enough to touch off a series of weather changes.
A. covered B. covering C. having covered D. being covered
32. Mr. Lee is our important customer, so make sure we give him _____ and make him feel special.
A. the salt of the earth B. a pie in the sky
C. the red-carpet treatment D. a pound of flesh
33. When you are preparing for a job interview, keep it in mind that your clothes should be smart, but _____.
A. confidential B. conservative C. controversial D. contradictory
34. — How was it _____ little John had done resulted in so much improvement?
— Through his great skills obtained by years of hard work and practice.
A. that whether B. whether that C. that what D. what that
35. — Mary’s new dress looks funny on her.
—_____ It looks fine to me.
A. Who cares? B. I wouldn’t say that.
C. What’s wrong? D. You are telling me.
第二节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
请认真阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
In the Orient young bulls are tested for the fight arena(竞技场) in a certain manner. Each is brought to the ring and 36 to attack a fighter who sticks them with a sword. The 37 of each bull is then evaluated with care according to the number of times he shows his 38 to charge in spite of the sharpness of the sword. From now on I will recognize that each day I am 39 by life in this manner. If I persist(坚持), if I continue to try, if I continue to 40 forward, I will succeed.
I will persist until I succeed.
I was not 41 to this world in defeat, nor does failure exist in my vocabulary. I am not a 42 waiting to be killed by my shepherd(牧羊人). I am a lion and I 43 to talk, to walk, to sleep
with the sheep. I will not hear those who 44 and complain, 45 their disease is infective. Let them join the sheep. The slaughter house(屠宰场) of failure is not my 46 .
I will persist until I succeed.
The prizes of life are at the end of each journey, not near the 47 ; and it is not given to me to know how many steps are 48 in order to reach my goal. Failure I may still 49 at the thousandth step, yet 50 hides behind the next bend in the road. Never will I know how close it 51 unless I turn the corner.
Always will I take another step. 52 that is of no use, I will take another, and yet another. In truth, one step at a time is not too difficult.
I will persist until I succeed.
From now on, I will consider each day’s 53 as one cut of my knife against a big tree. The first cut may cause not a shake in the wood, nor the second, nor the third. Each cut, of itself, may be tiny, and seem of no 54 . Yet from childish cuts the tree will 55 fall. So it will be with my efforts of today.
36. A. allowed B. praised C. persuaded D. frightened
37. A. strength B. bravery C. temper D. weakness
38. A. freedom B. purpose C. power D. willingness
39. A. tested B. favored C. measured D. challenged
40. A. lean B. charge C. walk D. push
41. A. delivered B. marched C. landed D. followed
42. A. wolf B. sheep C. dog D. bull
43. A. prepare B. desire C. refuse D. hesitate
44. A. sneeze B. laugh C. sing D. weep
45. A. for B. and C. but D. so
46. A. heaven B. nest C. fate D. fancy
47. A. beginning B. middle C. corner D. deadline
48. A. successful B. complete C. necessary D. meaningful
49. A. come by B. come after C. come at D. come across
50. A. dream B. success C. glory D. fame
51. A. sits B. stands C. lies D. lives
52. A. If B. Unless C. Since D. Though
53. A. delight B. effort C. vain D. sorrow
54. A. symbol B. manner C. evidence D. consequence
55. A. immediately B. eventually C. quickly D. frequently
第三部分 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
请认真阅读下列短文, 从短文后各题所给的 A、 B、 C、 D四个选项中, 选出最佳选项,并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
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· outside dining area
· fresh produce always used
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· seating for up to 50
· fully licensed bar
· small function room available for hire
· luxury accommodation available
· easy parking
· views our beautiful landscaped gardens
FOR THE FINEST STANDARDS OF
CUISINE & SERVICE
A
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TUESDAY—SATURDAY
EVENINGS
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LARGE VIDEO SCANNED CAR PARK OPPOSITE
56. If you go to , you may enjoy Chinese food.
A. Jack’s B. Changtom C. Moghul Express D. The Marina Restaurant
57. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT that .
A. Jack’s doesn’t serve food on Mondays
B. people can find a bar in each restaurant
C. you can appreciate a scenic forest in Changtom
D. Indian takeaway can be bought every day
B
Tuesday’s Amtrak derailment(脱轨) Philadelphia, which claimed eight lives and injured more than 200 others, has turned the country’s attention to railroad safety. But for those commuters(每日往返上班者) questioning whether or not to board the next train, statistics may offer some reassurance.
According to the scientific journal Bandolier, the lifetime odds of dying on a passenger train in the US are about one in 1,871,241. So trains are still one of the safest modes of transport; in 2013, 891 U.S. fatalities were linked to rail travel, while 32,700 people were killed in highway accidents.
“Train accidents are rare,” Dr. Zarembski, director of the railroad safety program, told The Huffington Post. “Accident rate in 2014 was 2.2 accidents per million train miles, this number has been declining steadily.” But if you are still concerned about safety — or if you’re just curious about which part of the train is the safest place to sit — science has an answer for that too.
The front car of a train is the most dangerous place in the event of a head-on collision, while the last car is less safe if the train is rear-ended(追尾). In fact, trains are nine times more likely to derail than to hit another train or car head-on or to get hit from behind, according to the Federal Railroad Administration. The administration found that there were about 13,200 derailments from 2005 to 2014, compared with about 1,450 collisions.
Studies suggest that broken rails or welds are the leading cause of derailment, and these problems more often cause derailments near the front of the train. Therefore, choosing a car located in the middle, or one or two back from the middle of the train may be the safest bet, Ross Capon, president of the National Association of Railroad Passengers, told CBS New York.
If you can’t get a seat near the midpoint of a train, there’s another potential safety factor you might want to consider — namely, which way your seat is facing. “I prefer rear facing so that in most cases you are pushed back into the seat in the event of an emergency braking application,” Zarembski said.
In general, aisle(过道) seats are safer than window seats, where a passenger is more likely to come in contact with broken glass or be thrown out of the train, Capon told CBS New York. Of course, in the very rare event of a catastrophic crash like Tuesday’s, there’s no guarantee that sitting in a certain place or facing a certain way means you’ll escape being injured.
58. What does the underlined word “fatalities” in Paragraph 2 most probably mean?
A. Deaths. B. Rates. C. Accidents. D. Carriages.
59. In the first three paragraphs, the author is trying to .
A. describe objectively the serious consequences a derailment may bring about
B. urge people to consider carefully whether to board a train in the future
C. impress on people the poor management of American railway lines
D. persuade people with statistics that it is still safer to travel by train
60. After reading the passage, we can infer that it might be the safest to sit .
A. front facing on a window seat in the front cars
B. front facing on an aisle seat in the last few cars
C. rear facing on an aisle seat in the middle cars
D. rear facing on a window seat one car behind the middle
C
About 5,500 years ago, one group of humans invented something truly revolutionary: the wheel. Almost overnight news of the innovation spread far and wide, and wheels became popular so quickly that some archaeologists say we can’t be sure exactly where the wheel was invented.
According to Eva Reindl at the University of Birmingham in the UK, stories like this tell us a lot about what makes us human. Surprisingly, it’s not that humans worked out how to make
wheels that’s important — it’s the fact that other populations quickly caught on and copied the idea. Reindl and her colleagues say that a chimpanzee, gorilla or orangutan won’t copy another ape’s(猿) inventions. Each ape, says Reindl, learns for itself how to solve a problem. These species lack our cumulative(累积的) culture — they are constantly reinventing the wheel.
They also find out that even though our species relies on learning from others, it seems — as youngsters, at least — we’re still capable of thinking entirely for ourselves. In this particular field, humans and other apes are apparently born in the same state.
Slightly paradoxically, Reindl says that finding similarities in the way humans and other apes are born can actually help us better define what really does make us unique as a species. This is because it highlights behaviors that we develop but that other apes do not.
For instance, although we might start out life with the same sort of tool-using capability that a chimpanzee possesses, we soon begin to behave in a more sophisticated way — precisely because we watch others and tap into the collective human wisdom that has accumulated down the generations. “My colleagues and I work from the standpoint that cumulative culture is probably uniquely human,” says Riendl. “But it’s a subject of hot debate in the field right now.”
On the other side of the debate are researchers like Christophe Boesch at the Max Planck Institute for Evolutionary Anthropology in Leipzig, Germany. “Our study of different tool selection in Tai chimps shows clearly that some important social component is at work in how chimps learn to select tools. In this region, at least, the apes actually do learn some tool use by carefully copying those around them. We still have so much to learn about tool use in chimpanzees,” says Boesch — including the complete range of tool use behaviors these apes show, how common each behavior is, and how individual chimpanzees learn to use tools for themselves.
It’s not yet clear whether cumulative culture separates us from apes. The scientific jury clearly hasn’t yet arrived at a decision. When consensus does emerge, we’ll know whether our sister species share our ability to imitate others — or whether they are doomed to reinvent the same things over and over again.
61. The stories like wheels’ invention are mentioned to show that .
A. humans can figure out how to invent wheels
B. humans can copy ideas and accumulate knowledge
C. apes aren’t smarter than human beings
D. apes are capable of inventing the wheel
62. What can we infer from Boesch’s study?
A. Cumulative culture might exist in apes.
B. Apes can use tools by copying others.
C. Tools selection is an important social component.
D. Cumulative culture separates humans from apes.
63. What does the author think of the imitating ability of apes?
A. They can do nothing but reinvent the same things over and over again.
B. Thinking for themselves is what they possess on their developing stage now.
C. Learning to copy others to use tools proves the existence of their imitating ability.
D. It remains to be seen whether apes have their cumulative culture.
64. Which of the following can best summarize the main idea of the passage?
A. The invention and development of the wheel.
B. The differences between humans and apes.
C. The debate about cumulative culture in humans.
D. The argument about cumulative culture in apes.
D
Shakespeare’s Sister
Let us imagine, since facts are so hard to come by, what would have happened had Shakespeare had a wonderfully gifted sister, called Judith.
Shakespeare himself went, very probably — his mother was an heiress — to the grammar
school, where he may have learnt Latin — Ovid, Virgil and Horace — and the elements of grammar and logic. He was, it is well known, a wild boy who poached (偷猎) rabbits, perhaps shot a deer, and had, rather sooner than he should have done, to marry a woman in the neighborhood, who bore him a child rather quicker than was right. That escapade sent him to seek his fortune in London. He had, it seemed, a taste for the theatre; he began by holding horses at the stage door. Very soon he got work in the theatre, became a successful actor, and lived at the centre of the universe, meeting everybody, knowing everybody, practicing his art on the boards, exercising his wits in the streets, and even getting access to the palace of the queen.
Meanwhile his extraordinarily gifted sister remained at home. She was as adventurous, as imaginative, as curious to see the world as he was. But she was not sent to school. She had no chance of learning grammar and logic, let alone of reading Horace and Virgil. She picked up a book now and then, one of her brother’s perhaps, and read a few pages. But then her parents came in and told her to mend the stockings or mind the stew(炖锅) and not moon about with books and papers. They would have spoken sharply but kindly, for they were practical people who knew the conditions of life for a woman. Soon, however, before she was out of her teens, she was to be engaged to the son of a neighboring wool stapler(经销商). She cried out that marriage was hateful to her, and for that she was severely beaten by her father. Then he ceased to scold her. He begged her instead not to hurt him, not to shame him in this matter of her marriage. He would give her a chain of beads or fine dresses, he said; and there were tears in his eyes. How could she disobey him? How could she break his heart?
The force of her own gift alone drove her to it. She made up a small parcel of her belongings, let herself down by a rope one summer’s night and took the road to London. She was not seventeen. The birds that sang in the woods were not more musical than she was. She had the quickest fancy, a gift like her brother’s, for the tune of words. Like him, she had a taste for the theatre. She stood at the stage door; she wanted to act, she said. Men laughed in her face. The manager — a fat, loose-lipped man — howled with laughter. He roared something about puppies dancing and women acting — no woman, he said, could possibly be an actress. She could get no training in her craft. Could she even seek her dinner in a bar or roam (游荡) the streets at midnight? Yet her genius was for fiction and lusted to feed abundantly upon the lives of men and women and the study of their ways. At last — for she was very young, oddly like Shakespeare the poet in her face, with the same grey eyes and rounded brows — at last Nick Greene the actor-manager took pity on her; she found herself with child by that gentleman and so — who shall measure the heat and violence of the poet’s heart when caught and confined in a woman’s body? — killed herself one winter’s night and lies buried at some cross-roads where the omnibuses (公共汽车) now stop outside the Elephant and Castle.
That, more or less, is how the story would run, if a woman in Shakespeare’s day had had Shakespeare’s genius.
65. From Paragraph 2, we can find Shakespeare once did all of the followings but .
A. hold horses at the theatre B. be the centre of the universe
C. perform plays on the stage D. go to the palace of the queen
66. What can we infer from Judith’s teen life?
A. She got less affection from her parents than her brother.
B. She was willing to be engaged to a wool stapler.
C. Her father wanted to make a fortune by her marriage.
D. She was cared for but was expected to live a girl’s life.
67. Which of the following is NOT true about Judith’s genius?
A. She had an unbelievably sweet voice.
B. She was fond of creating literary works.
C. She liked acting and was an expert actress.
D. She had a great talent for the tune of words.
68. What is the right order of Judith’s life events?
a. She was forced to be engaged.
b. She found herself pregnant by Nick Greene.
c. She had no chance of schooling.
d. She fled away from home to London.
e. She put an end to her life.
A. c-a-b-d-e B. a-c-b-d-e C. c-a-d-b-e D. b-c-a-d-e
69. Why did Judith commit suicide to end her life?
A. The fat manager rejected her and even insulted her.
B. She married the wrong person and couldn’t face it.
C. She couldn’t tolerate the violence of the poet’s heart.
D. She was caught between her ideal and the reality.
70. From the passage, we can safely draw the conclusion that in the age of Shakespeare .
A. women couldn’t make their achievements at any level
B. women could enjoy themselves domestically and socially
C. women couldn’t possibly act on the stage or write plays
D. women could make their own decision as to their marriage
第四部分 任务型阅读 (共10小题；每小题l分，满分l0分)
请认真阅读下列短文，并根据所读内容在表格中的横线上填入一个最恰当的单词。
注意：请将答案写在答题卡上相应题号的横线上。每个空格只填1个单词。
Teenagers who spend quality time with their parents are more likely to want to further their studies, according to research from the University of Warwick. Researchers found that adolescents who take part in cultural activities with their mother and father were more likely to aspire(渴望) to continue their studies post-16 than those who didn't. This is compared to even those who attended homework clubs or participated in extra-curricular activities.
Dr Hartas led the research. She said: “Filial(子女的) dynamics such as emotional closeness to parents and cultural capital were better predictors than more school-driven parent-child interactions.” Factors relating to family emotional closeness, bullying, friendships, homework, extra-curricular activities and perception of parental interest in the child's education were examined. The researchers measured responses to questions about a variety of topics such as visiting art galleries, discussing books at home, the number of evenings spent doing homework, relationship with siblings and quarrelling with parents.
Dr Hartas and her team found that the willingness to solve problems was a strong predictor of educational aspiration. Adolescents who indicated they were less confident at handling problems were 30% less likely to rate gaining GCSEs important. In addition those who expressed a lower level of general well-being were 18% more likely to choose not to go to university. Closeness to parents was an indicator of attitude towards GCSEs; those who did not feel emotionally close to their parents were two times higher to consider GCSEs unimportant. However, emotional closeness to parents was not found to be significant in predicting a desire to attend university.
What the researchers termed ‘cultural capital’ or participating in cultural activities also appeared to affect the desire to study further. Those who weren’t exposed to cultural activity were 14% and 20% respectively less likely to consider university or GCSEs as important. Those who did go to museums, galleries, concerts etc. were found to be 23% less likely to consider training or employment post-16.
Dr Hartas said that these findings had significant implications for family and educational policy, especially with regard to “raising aspirations and reducing early school leaving.” They also raised the issue of reconsidering the role of the home environment as a web of emotionally and intellectually charged relationships between parents and children rather than an extension of the school day.
Implications of the research
Quality time rather than study time improves teens’ educational aspirations
(71) ▲ of a recent study
There is a high (72) ▲ that teenagers spending quality time and (73) ▲ in cultural activities with their parents are willing to further their studies.
(74) ▲ affecting the desire for further study
Being (75) ▲ close to parents can better predict that teenagers will motivate themselves to study.
The more (76) ▲ the adolescents have to solve problems, the (77) ▲ their educational desire will become.
It seems that teenagers who have (78) ▲ to cultural activities desire to study further.
With the research’s help, we can raise teenagers’ aspirations and prevent them (79) ▲ school early.
The role of the home environment should be reconsidered as an emotional and intellectual relationship web (80) ▲ of a school day extension.
第五部分：书面表达（满分 25分）
请阅读下面短文, 并按照要求用英语写一篇150词左右的文章。
Puss, a mother cat, with her three kittens, had lived in the local cellar(地下室); but one day she thought she would carry them to the attic(阁楼).
The servant thought that was not the proper place for them; so she carried them back to the cellar.
Puss was certain that she wanted them in the attic; so she carried them there again and again, five, six, seven, — yes, a dozen times; for each time the servant took them back to the cellar.
Poor Puss was nearly tired out, and could carry them no longer.
Suddenly she went away. Where do you think she went?
She was gone a long time. When she returned, she had a strange cat with her that we had never seen before.
She seemed to tell him all about her great trouble, and he listened to her story.
Then the strange cat took the little kittens, one by one, and carried them to the attic. After this he went away, and we have never seen him since.
The servant then left the kittens in the attic, for she saw how anxious Puss was to have them stay there.
Wasn’t the strange cat kind to Puss? This story should teach children to be ready to help one
another.
【写作内容】
1.用约30个单词写出上文概要；
2.用约120个单词对“乐于助人”这一话题谈谈你的看法,内容包括：
⑴读完上文后你的感受；
⑵描述一件你所你亲身经历的帮助别人的事；
⑶为什么要弘扬乐于助人的精神？
【写作要求】
⑴作文中可以使用自己的亲身经历或虚构的故事,也可以参照阅读材料的内容，但不得直接引用原文中的句子；
⑵文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称；
⑶不必写标题。
【评分标准】
内容完整，语言规范，语篇连贯，词数适当。
英语试题参考答案
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分20分）
1-5 CCBAB 6-10 ABAAC 11-15 BBCBB 16-20 ABCAB
第二部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 单项填空（共15题；每小题1分，满分15分）
21 – 25 DCBDA 26 – 30 ABDAB 31 – 35BCBCB
第二节 完型填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
36-40 ABDAB 41-45 ABCDA 46-50 CACDB 51-55 CABDB
第三部分 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
56 – 57 DB 58 – 60 ADC 61-64BADD 65 – 70 BDCCDC
第四部分 任务型阅读(共10小题；每小题l分，满分l0分)
71. Finding 72. possibility/probability 73. participating 74. Factors 75. emotionally
76. confidence/willingness 77. stronger 78. access 79. leaving/quitting
80. instead
第五部分：书面表达（满分 25分）
这篇小短文有204个字。本篇小文章是选自《美国语文经典读本》第二册第八课。
[Sample]
To have her kittens stay in the proper place—attic, Puss tried several times but was always stopped by the servant. Thanks for a strange and kind cat’s help, she made it. (32words)
I’m deeply moved by what the strange cat did. He helped Puss selflessly asking for nothing in return, which made me think of what happened to me recently. It was on Monday morning, when several teachers attended our English lesson. Among them, a middle-aged teacher sat beside me, leaving her wallet on my desk. But she forgot to take it after class. So I rushed out, gave it back to her and ran away.
As far as I am concerned, the spirit of being ready to help others should be advocated. Helping others is a traditional virtue in China. If you help others today, maybe others will help you in the future. In this way, we can construct a harmonious society. (121words)
听力原文
Text1
M: Welcome home, Mary! Have you had any problems at university since last September?
W: Merry Christmas, Uncle! Well, nothing to speak of.
M: No more worries? No complaints? Great!
Text2
M: Excuse me. Can you tell me where the Shanghai Grand Theater is? I’m completely lost.
W: Oh, just walk along this street and turn right at the corner. You will see the Shanghai Museum on People’s Avenue. The Shanghai Grand Theater is opposite that.
Text3
W: I heard you got full marks in the math exam. Congratulations!
M: Thanks! I’m sure you also did a good job.
Text4
M: I don’t know why people are just mad about David Beckham. Is there really anything so fascinating with him?
W: He appeals to the fans thanks to two things, his bending kicks and his good looks.
Text5
W: Rod, I hear you’ll be leaving at the end of this month. Is it true?
M: Yeah. I’ve been offered a much better position with another firm. I’d be a fool to turn it down.
Text6
W: What do you plan to do during the holiday?
M: I want to visit China. Can you recommend any interesting places I should visit there?
W: I think Shanghai will interest you. It is a big city.
M: Good idea. Where are you going to spend your holiday?
W: I will stay at home. I want to spend my time studying French. It is said that French is a very popular language because it is the most beautiful language in the world. I think it’s a very useful language, even though it isn’t very easy.
M: You really work hard all the time. You should really do some sports. For example, you can play basketball or football.
W: That’s a good idea, but I think I’d rather play table tennis better. That’s a fun sport.
Text7
W: Hi, Tom! What are you doing?
M: Oh, I’m studying for an English test.
W: Have you made any progress?
M: No, as a matter of fact, very little. I really don’t know how to study all this stuff! How is your English? How do you study?
W: Well, you might try using the Internet to help you, you can listen to English songs Online, watch films in English, and find lots of other things that can increase your interest and help you learn English. That really worked. Many of my classmates also made great progress. The Internet helps you not only learn English but also expand your knowledge of Western cultures.
M: That’s really wonderful. I never thought English language learning could be so much fun.
W: Yes, in fact, learning English is not as difficult as you think.
M: Next time, can you show me how to practice English online?
W: Sure. Well, I have to return some books. Good luck in your examination!
M: Thank you! Bye.
Text8
W: Doctor, I’ve got a little pain and numbness in my ears.
M: Let me see. Well, do you often listen to loud music with earphones?
W: Yes. I usually listen to music or practice English listening two or three hours per day．
M: That’s the very problem. Listening to loud music more than 90 minutes a day can damage your
hearing according to a new study.
W: How can I improve my hearing, doctor?
M: Well, stop listening to loud music with earphones immediately.
W: Can’t I listen to music with earphones in the future?
M: Oh, yes, but later. Try to reduce the time you use earphones and never use your ears too much.
W: By the way, are there any user-friendly earphones to protect my ears?
M: No, in the future we may get some. From now on you should concern yourself about your hearing loss, or it may cause a terrible result.
W: I see. Thank you, doctor.
Text9
W: Good afternoon. I’d like some information about the train, please.
M: Yes, Madam. Where are you going?
W: To London. You see, I have a sister there and she studies in…
M: So your question is“When is the next train to London?”. Is that right?
W: Yes, that’s right. When’s the next train to London?
M: At half past four. That’s in about six minutes.
W: Thank you very much. Oh! Can I get something to eat on the train? I always have something to eat when I travel. I find that a cup of tea and a cake always calm me down.
M: Yes, Madam. You can get what you want on the train.
W: Oh, good! Err, how much does a cup of tea cost?
M: I’m not sure, Madam. Fifty pence, I think.
W: Oh, dear! Things are getting so expensive.
M: Yes, Madam. Your train is going to leave in five minutes from Platform 13.
W: Platform 13! Oh, dear! I never travel on trains that leave from Platform 13! 13 is an unlucky number. When’s the next train after the 4:30 one?
Text10
M: Attention please! Thank you. Now, welcome to the Spring Hotel. We hope you have a wonderful holiday. Let me tell you about some of the services we have here. On the ground floor, you will find reception. Here we can answer your questions and help you with any general problems. Please leave your room key here whenever you go out. On the sixth floor is a restaurant where you can have breakfast from half past seven to half past nine each morning. The bedrooms are on the fourth and fifth floors. If you want to use a phone, there are telephones available on the second floor. Any questions? No? Fine. You can go shopping on the first floor. For people who like sports, if you want to swim, there’s a nice new pool on the seventh floor, where you can swim and enjoy the warm sunshine. We also have some tennis courts behind the hotel. Oh, and if you want to watch your favorite program, the televisions are on the third floor. Any questions? No? Well, good. Have a nice holiday. My office is on the sixth floor, just next to the pub. lf you’re in need of any help, please don’t hesitate to come and ask.
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