普陀区2016学年第一学期髙三英语质量调研
英语试卷
I. Listening Comprehension Section A10%
Directions： In Section A, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard
1. A.Relaxed B.Annoyed C. Worried. D. Satisfied
2. A. On February 1st. B. On February 2nd. C. On February 3rd D. On February 8th.
3. A. A basketball player. B. A laundry worker.
C. A window washer. D. A rock climber.
4. A. To a stationery shop. B. To a gymnasium.
C. To a paint store. D. To a news stand.
5. A. Ask for something cheaper B. Buy the purse she really likes
C. Protect herself from being hurt. D. Bargain with the shop assistant.
6. A. She doesn't plan to continue studying next year.
B. She has already told the man about her plan.
C. She isn’t planning to leave her university.
D. She recently visited a different university
B. Dessert is served in the cafeteria.
D. Coffee isn’t allowed in the library.
7. A. The cafeteria isn’t usually so empty.
C. The cafeteria is near the library.
8. A. She lives close to the man.
C. She will turn to her manager.
B. She changes her mind at last.
D. She declines the man's offer.
9. A. He doesn't mind helping the woman.
B. He'll help if the woman doesn't mind.
C. He’ll help if the woman doesn’t mind.
D. He can’t help move the cupboard.
10. A. The washing machine is totally beyond repair.
B. She will help Wendy prepare her annual report.
C. Wendy should give priority to writing her report.
D. The washing machine should be checked annually.
Section B 15%
Directions： In Section B, you will hear two short passages and one longer conversation, and you will be asked several questions on each of the passages and the conversation. The passages and the conversation will be read twice, but the questions will be spoken only once. When you hear a question, read the four possible answers on your paper and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.
Questions 11 through 13 are based on the following passage.
11. A. Because he always fired the waiters.
B. Because he followed several waiters.
C. Because he was a natural motivator.
D. Because he seldom had a bad day.
12. A. Give advice.
C. Choose to be a victim.
B. Tell himself to be in a good mood.
D. Accept someone’s complaints.
13. A. How to be a unique manager.
B. We should be curious about unique people.
C. Our choices may decide how we live our lives.
D. We should do something after we wake up each morning.
Questions 14 through 16 are based on the following passage.
14. A. They are very generous in giving gifts.
B. They refuse gifts when doing business.
C. They regard gifts as a symbol of friendship.
D. They give gifts only on special occasions.
15. A. They enjoy giving gifts to other people.
B. They spend a lot of time choosing gifts.
C. They have to follow many specific rules.
D. They pay attention to the quality of gifts.
16. A. Gift-giving plays an important role in human relationships.
B. We must be aware of cultural difference in giving gifts.
C. We must learn how to give gifts before going abroad.
D. Reading extensively makes one a better gift-giver.
Questions 17 through 20 are based on the following conversation.
13. A. She is enjoying her language study.
B. She is enjoying her management study.
C. She is not feeling very well at the moment.
D. She is not happy about her study pressure.
18. A. It is challenging. B. It is interesting. C. It is useful. D. It is difficult.
19. A. She dislikes the food she eats.
B. She is unable to sleep well.
C. She finds the rent high.
D. She has no chance to make friends.
20. A. To try to make more friends.
B. To try to change accommodation.
C. To spend more time on English.
D. To stop attending language classes.
II. Grammar and vocabulary Section A 10%
Directions： After reading the passage below, fill in the blanks to make the passage coherent and grammatically correct. For the blanks with a given word, fill in each blank with the proper form of the given word; for the other blanks, use one word that best fits each blank.
The Importance of Accessibility Awareness
At a recent meeting, people with disabilities talked about their lives. I was amazed to hear about
the challenges (21) (face) by people with physical disabilities. However, (22)
amazed me most was the great importance of education about handicap (残障）facilities.
Two women who (23) (use) wheelchairs all their life are two important members of
the National Group for Disabled Persons, devoted to (24) (raise) awareness about
disabilities. They educate about all the facilities for people with disabilities. One big concern is the
people who take advantage of aids, such as handicap parking spaces. So people (25)
disabilities need to be educated about these facilities. And the meeting focused on educating the public.
Some handicap spots have extra room next to them, marked with the “No Parking” signs. “(26)
I'm not in the spot, I can take the no-parking area next to it/5 some
people say. However, the women (27) use a wheelchair disagree to this. The space exists to
allow someone in a wheelchair to have room to get in or out of their car. If there is a car in that space, the handicap parking spot is no longer useful.
Some walkways have handrails next to them to help those who require extra assistance. (28)
it is a blind person seeking guidance or an elderly person seeking support, the rail is there
for walking. Sometimes the rail is blocked, by a parked bicycle for instance, and consequently made useless. As with the parking spot, this is more likely a case of lack of education. People who (29)
(inform) of the rail’s use would be less likely to mistake it for a bike rack(停放架).Meeting
some of the people who are affected by the lack of education about facilities made me see that there is work to be done. If more people were educated about the proper uses of accommodations, there would be (30)_______(few) challenges for people with physical disabilities.
Section B 10%
Directions： Fill in each blank with a proper word chosen from the box. Each word can be used only once. Note that there is one word more than you need.
A. glued B. guilty C. luxurious D. portrait E. proud F. reflected
G. removed H. doubts I. reveals J. shadow K. suggest
Could It Be a Work by Rembrandt（伦勃朗）
Rembrandt is the most famous of the seventeenth-century Dutch painters.
However, there are 31 whether some paintings attributed (归属）to
Rembrandt were actually painted by him. One such painting is known as attributed to Rembrandt because of its style, and indeed the representation of the woman’s face is very much like that of portraits known to be by Rembrandt. But
there are problems with the painting that 32 it could not be a work by
Rembrandt.
First, there is something inconsistent （不一致） about the way the woman in
the 33 is dressed. She is wearing a white linen cap of a kind that only
servants would wear—-yet the coat she is wearing has a 34 fur collar that no servant could
afford. Rembrandt, who was known for his attention to the details of his subjects' clothing, would not have been 35 of such an inconsistency.
Second, Rembrandt was a master of painting light and 36 , but in this painting these
elements do not fit together. The face appears to be illuminated（照亮）by light 37 onto it
from below. But below the face is the dark fur collar, which would absorb light rather than reflect it. So the face should appear partially in shadow, which is not how it appears. Rembrandt would never have made such an error.
Finally, examination of the back of the painting 38 that it was painted on a panel made
of several pieces of wood ___39___ together. Although Rembrandt often painted on wood panels (面板)s no painting known to be by Rembrandt was painted in this way.
For these reasons, the painting was 40 from the official catalog of Rembrandt’s paintings
in the 1930s.
II. Reading Comprehension Section A 15%
Directions： For each blank in the following passage there are four words or phrases marked A, B, C and D. Fill in each blank with the word or phrase that best fits the context.
A Question of Judgment
Human beings are, in principle, poor at considering background information when making individual decisions. At first glance, this might seem like a strength that __41__ people the ability to make judgments which are independent of __42__ factors. But in a world of quotas（配额）and limits—__43___, the world in which most professional people operate—Dr. Simonsohn reported in Psychological Science that it was actually a weakness since an inability to consider the big picture was leading decision-makers to be biased(有偏见）by the daily samples they were working with. For example, he supposed that a judge fearful of appearing too soft on crime might be more likely to send someone to prison ___44___ he had already sentenced five or six other defendants（被告）only to forced community service on that day.
To __45_ this idea, Dr. Simonsohn. and his assistants turned their attention to the university-admissions process. Admissions officers interview hundreds of applicants every year, at a rate of 4% a day, and can offer entry to about 40% of them. In theory, the ___46__ of an applicant should not depend on the few others ___47__ randomly for interview during the same day, but Dr. Simonsohn suspected the truth was otherwise.
He studied the results of 9,323 MBA interviews ___48___ by 31 admissions officers. The interviewers had rated applicants on a scale of one to five. This scale ___49___ numerous factors, including communication skills, personal drive, team-working ability and personal accomplishments, into consideration. The scores from this rating were ___50___ used in conjunction with an applicant's score on the GMAT, a standardized exam which is __51___ out of 800 points, to make a decision on whether to accept him or her.
Dr. Simonsohn found if the score of the previous candidate in a daily series of interviewees was 0.75 points or more higher than that of the one _52_ that, then the score for the next applicant would __53__ by an average of 0.075 points. This might sound small, but to reverse the effects of such a decrease, a candidate would need 30 more GMAT points than would otherwise have been necessary.
As for why people behave this way, Dr. Simonsohn proposes that after accepting a number of strong candidates, interviewers might form the illogical expectation that a __54__ candidate “is due”. Regardless of the reason, if this sort of thinking proves to have a similar effect on the judgments of those in other fields, such as law and medicine, it could be responsible for far worse things than the __55__ of qualified business-school candidates.
41. A. grants
B. equips
C. denies
D. delivers
42. A. minor
B. external
C. crucial
D. objective
43. A. above all
B. not to mention
C. on the whole
D. in other words
44. A. if
B. until
C. though
D. unless
45. A. test
B. emphasize
C. share
D. promote
46. A. decision
B. quality
C. status
D. success
47. A. found
A
B. studied
C. chosen
D. identified
48. A. inspired
B. expressed
C. conducted
D. secured
49. A. put
B. got
C. took
D. gave
50. A. instead
B. then
C. ever
D. rather
51. A. selected
B. passed
C. marked
D. introduced
52. A. below
B. after
C. above
D. before
53. A. jump
B. float
C. flow
D. drop
54. A. stronger
B. weaker
C. better
D. worse
55. A. rejection
B. reception
C. reputation
D. recreation
Section B 22%
Directions： Read the following three passages. Each passage is followed by several questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that fits best according to the information given in the passage you have just read.
(A).
Roald Dahl - the author who entertained people with classics like Matilda, Charlie and the Chocolate Factory and James and the Giant Peach - would have been 100 years old this year. Roald Dahl is most famous for the books he wrote for children, but he also wrote novels and short stories for adults, screenplays, and non-fiction, too!
Roald Dahl was born near Cardiff, in Wales in 1916. His parents were from Norway, and they named him after Roald Amundsen, the famous Norwegian explorer. Roald was sent off to boarding school when he was only nine years old. He was very homesick, and had a hard time obeying the strict teachers and the headmaster. In those days, teachers would sometimes hit their students with a cane (藤条）when they misbehaved. This naturally made a lot of children very afraid of their teachers! Later on, Roald integrated this fear and distrust of adults into many of his children's books.
During World War II, Roald joined the Royal Air Force and flew missions over Africa, the Mediterranean, and the Middle East. At one point, his plane crashed in the Libyan Desert. He was temporarily blinded, and stranded in the middle of nowhere with a cracked skull and a broken nose. Fortunately, he was rescued, and within a few months had made a complete recovery. After his injuries forced him to leave the Air Force, Roald began writing. His first published piece was a magazine article about his plane crash. During the 1950s, he became an accomplished writer of short stories for adults. These stories usually featured mystery, suspense, and a twist ending.
In 1961, Roald published James and the Giant Peach, which tells the story of a young boy who attempts to escape from his two nasty, abusive aunts. The boy finally gets away by sailing across the ocean inside a magical. giant peach and befriends the giant bugs that live inside it. James and the Giant Peach was prompted by the bedtime stories Roald would make up for his young daughters. He said that it was a challenge to keep them interested and attentive--- he had to make his stories funny, exciting, and original. In 1964, he wrote his most famous book--- Charlie and the Chocolate Factory, in which a poor boy wins a “golden ticket” to tour a mysterious world.
56. How did Roald Dahl’s experiences in World War II influence his later writing?
A. He was a pilot, and his first publication was about a plane crash.
B. He was in Navy, and his first publication dealt with life aboard a ship.
C. He was in the Army, and his first publication was set in Nazi-occupied Europe.
D. He worked in a military factory, and his first publication was about factory life.
57. Many of Roald Dahl’s children’s stories were inspired by .
A. a vacation he took with his grandparents
B. his relationship with his parents
C. his time in the military
D. his time away at boarding school
58. What led Roald Dahl to write James and the Giant Peach?
A. His lifelong love of peaches.
A. The bedtime stories he told his daughters.
B. The insects he found in his garden.
C. The cruelty he experienced at the hands of his aunts.
59. Which of these statements is an opinion about Roald Dahl?
A. He was the greatest children's author of the 20th century.
B. He published more than a dozen books for children.
C. James and the Giant Peach was his first book for children.
D. Several of his books were adapted into successful movies.
(B)
Holiday Plus
Need a break? Choose from these three wonderful holidays!
Holiday
location
Mountain Lodge A unique wilderness retreat on the edge of the World Heritage-listed National Park and only 5 km from the sea
Pelican Resort A true coral island right on the Great Barrier Reef (大堡礁）
Swim straight for the beach
Cedar Lodge A mixture of casual atmosphere and rich rainforest surroundings for those over 25
Price*
$330
$580
$740
Number of nights
2
4
4
Daily meals included in package
Mountain buffet breakfast Free soft drink always available
Hot breakfast Beach picnic lunch 4-course dinner
Tropical breakfast Picnic lunch (optional extra)
Comments
Free canoeing Free talks in the evening Free open-air tennis courts Horse-riding (optional extra)
Renovation: resort will
close for May
Free minibus trip
around island
Plane flights to Wilson
Island only $50
Oldest living rainforest Free bikes and tennis courts; horse-riding extra
Transport
to/from
airport
Self-drive auto 1h 15m Bus three times/week approx.2 hours
1/2 hour by minibus
10 mins by taxi
*Price： per person, per package, twin share
Children 11 years and under are 50%. Children 4 years and under are free.
60. Which holiday location doesn’t welcome young children?
A. Mountain Lodge. B. Pelican Resort.
B. Cedar Lodge. D. None of the above.
61. According to the holiday advertisement, which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. Both Mountain Lodge and Pelican Resort are close to the coast.
B. Tourists can't visit Pelican Resort in May because of the restoration.
C. All meals are included if tourists choose to go to the Pelican Resort.
D. Canoeing and cycling are provided at no extra cost at Cedar Lodge.
62. A holiday in Mountain Lodge for a couple with 12-year-old twin girls and a 3-year-old boy costs
A. $825 B. $990 C. $1320 D. $1650
(C)
France, which prides itself as the global innovator of fashion, has decided its fashion industry has lost an absolute right to define physical beauty for woman. Its lawmakers gave preliminary （初步） approval last week to a law that would make it a crime to employ ultra-thin models on catwalks. The parliament also agreed to ban websites that advocate “excessive thinness” by promoting extreme dieting.
Such measures have a couple of uplifting motives. They suggest beauty should not be defined by looks that end up with impinging on health. That’s a start. And the ban on ultra-thin models seems to go beyond protecting models from starving themselves to health, as some have done. It tells the fashion industry that it must take responsibility for the signal it sends to women, especially teenage girls, about the social standard they must use to determine their individual worth.
The bans, if fully enforced, would suggest to woman (and many men) that they should not let others be judges of their beauty. And perhaps faintly, they hint that people should look to other qualities like character and intellect rather than dieting their way to size zero or wasp-waist (黄蜂腰体型).
The French measures, however, rely too much on severe punishment to change a culture that still regards beauty as skin-deep and bone-showing. Under the law, using a fashion model that does not meet a government-defined index of body mess could result in a $85,000 fine and six months in prison.
The fashion industry knows it has an inherent problem in focusing on material decoration and idealized body types. In Denmark, the United States, and a few other countries, it is trying to set voluntary standard for models and fashion images that rely more on peer pressure for enforcement.
In contrast to France’s actions, Denmark’s fashion industry agreed last month on rules and punishments regarding age, health, and other characteristics of models. The newly revised Danish Fashion Ethical Charter (伦理准则）dearly states: “We are aware of and take responsibility for the
impact the fashion industry has on body ideals, especially on young people.^
Relying on ethical persuasion rather than law to address the misuse of body ideals may be the best step. Even better would be to help elevate concepts of beauty beyond the material standards of a particular industry.
63. According to the first paragraph, what would happen in France?
A. Physical beauty would be redefined.
B. New catwalks would be constructed.
C. Websites about dieting would boom.
D. The fashion industry would decline.
64. The phrase “impinging on”（Line2, Para2) is closest in meaning to .
A. increasing the value of B. indicating the state of
C. losing faith in D. doing harm to
65. Which of the following is TRUE of the fashion industry?
A. The French measures have already failed.
B. New standards are being set in Denmark.
C. Models are no longer under peer pressure.
D. Its inherent problems are getting worse.
66. Which of the following may be the best title of the text?
A. Just Another Struggle for Beauty
B. A Prospect for the Starving Models in France
C A Challenge to the Fashion Industry’s Body Ideals
B. Threats io the Fashion Industry
Section C 8%
Directions： Read the passage carefully. Fill in each blank with a proper sentence given in the box. Each sentence can be used only once. Note that there are two more sentences than you need.
A. More than a quarter are in sub-Saharan Africa.
B. There are many reasons for world hunger.
C. It takes the effort of every country to fight against world hunger.
D. In those places, obesity is a far bigger problem than hunger.
E. Those places need far more food than they actually get.
F. By the end of this year, more than 35 million people will have died as a result of not having enough to eat.
In 2009, the number of hungry people in the world reached one billion for the first time. It's difficult not to be shocked by the fact that more than one in seven people in the world do not have enough to eat. __67__ Hunger kills more people per year than diseases such as AIDS, malaria (症疾）and TB(肺结核）combined.
The UN estimates that almost two thirds of the world's hungry people are in Asia, which is of course the world's most populous continent. __68__ Although this region has a much lower population than Asia, it has the highest percentage of hungry people. Almost all of the rest are in Latin America, North Africa and the Caribbean. In the richest regions of the world there are only a tiny number of people who don't have enough to eat.
__69__ They include wars, droughts, floods, and the over-use of farming land. All these factors affect food production. Many people also blame greedy businessmen for pushing up the prices of basic foods in the global market. But the most important reason, quite simply, is poverty, which has increased recently due to the financial crisis of 2008.
Although many people make the obvious point that there would be less hunger if the global population were smaller, few people would argue that there is not enough food to go around. The basic problem seems to be not a lack of food, but its distribution. In the last 50 years, global food production has risen even more quickly than the global population. There are many areas of the world in which people generally have more than enough food. __70__ The answer to world hunger, therefore, may be a balanced food distribution around the whole world. Everyone will have enough to eat, but not overeat.
II. Summary Writing 10%
Directions： Read the following passage. Summarize the main idea and the main point(s) of the passage in no more than 60 words. Use your own words as far as possible.
Teaching Is “One of the Least Popular Jobs in the UK”
The UK government has just published a report on the future of secondary school teaching, and the conclusion of the report is that many secondary schools now face great difficulties in finding people who want to be teachers. Since the 1980s, the number of graduates who would “seriously consider” teaching as a career has fallen sharply, from 64% in 1982 to just 17% today. The report suggests that urgent action needs to be taken in order to encourage more intelligent young graduates into teaching.
The main drawback（缺点）of secondary teaching, according to the report, is the low salary. Earnings in teaching are much lower than in many other jobs. Joanne Manners, 24, is a good example: “I graduated in maths last year, and I was thinking of doing a teacher-training course to become a maths teacher---but I saw I could earn twice as much if I worked in marketing or advertising, so I decided not to become a teacher.”
It's not just about the money, however. The survey concluded that another reason why people donn’t want to be teachers is that some teenagers behave very badly in school. A lot of schools have problems with discipline, and it seems clear that children do not have the same respect for teachers as in the past. Here’s the view of Dave Hallam, an accountant from London: “I think parents are to blame. They should have stricter rules with their children at home and also teach their children to have more respect for teachers.”
The report is clear that the problem of teacher shortage is a very serious one. It says that the government should raise teachers’ pay significantly, to catch up with workers in other professions. It also indicates that the government could launch a nationwide publicity campaign, with some advertisements on TV and in the newspapers, to show the positive sides of teaching to young people.
III. Translation 15%
Directions: Translate the following sentences into English, using the words given in the brackets.
72. 三轮激烈的电视辩论之后，Trump当选为美国总统。（elect)
73. 无论多忙，我们都应该花点时间锻炼身体。（spend)
74. 手机在人们日常生活中起着如此重要的作用，没有人敢不带手机去旅行。（So...)
75. 最近上映的这部电影旨在唤起公众对于边防警察的关注，他们冒着生命危险，不惜一切代 价捍卫国家尊严。（concern)
IV. Guided Writing 25%
Directions： Write an English composition in 120-150 words according to the instructions given below in Chinese.
学校学生广播台正在酝酿改版，拟从现有的三个栏目（科学技术、兴趣爱好、文学艺术） 中去除一个，并从三个备选栏目（旅行、环保、健身）中挑选一个纳入该电台节目。假设你是该校学生李华，给校广播台长写一封电子邮件，表达你的观点。邮件须包括以下内容：
1. 你建议去除的栏目及去除的理由；
2. 你建议增加的栏目及增加的理由。
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