江西南昌二中2018届高三英语上学期第三次月考试题(带答案)
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www.ks5u.com 南昌二中2017~2018学年度上学期第三次考试 高三英语试卷 第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)‎ 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)‎ 听下面5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1. Where will the woman go first? ‎ ‎ A. To the beach. ‎ B. To the bank. ‎ C. To the bathroom.‎ ‎2. What does the woman mean? ‎ ‎ A. The man forgot to do his hair.‎ ‎ B. The man forgot to put on a tie.‎ ‎ C. The man is wearing clothes that don’t match.‎ ‎3. How does the woman probably feel? ‎ ‎ A. Annoyed. ‎ B. Hungry. ‎ C. Excited.‎ ‎4. Why didn’t the man answer the phone? ‎ ‎ A. He lost it. ‎ B. He didn’t hear it. ‎ C. His phone ran out of power.‎ ‎5. Who did the woman want to call? ‎ ‎ A. James. ‎ B. Drake. ‎ C. Daniel.‎ 第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) ‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 ‎ 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。‎ ‎6. What does the man order? ‎ ‎ A. Hot dogs and fries. ‎ B. Burgers and fries. ‎ C. Sandwiches and sodas.‎ ‎7. How much does the man give the woman as a tip? ‎ ‎ A. Three dollars. ‎ B. Two dollars. ‎ C. One dollar.‎ 听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。‎ ‎8. Where are the speakers? ‎ ‎ A. In a car. ‎ B. On a boat. ‎ C. On a motorcycle.‎ ‎9. What is the woman doing? ‎ ‎ A. Looking at a paper map.‎ ‎ B. Trying to find a website.‎ ‎ C. Using a phone to give directions.‎ 听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。‎ ‎10. What does the man like about YouTube? ‎ ‎ A. Watching funny home videos.‎ ‎ B. Learning about the special TV channels.‎ ‎ C. Putting his own videos on the website.‎ ‎11. What kind of meals do the guys make in Epic Meal Time? ‎ ‎ A. Low fat meals. ‎ B. Unhealthy meals. ‎ C. Vegetarian meals.‎ ‎12. What happens to the meals in the end? ‎ A. They are tasted by the audience.‎ B. They are given to the homeless.‎ C. They are eaten by the cooks and their friends.‎ 听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。‎ ‎13. What are the speakers mainly talking about? ‎ ‎ A. Their vets.‎ ‎ B. Money spent on pets.‎ ‎ C. Ways to buy dogs’ medicines.‎ ‎14. What is the man’s dog’s name? ‎ ‎ A. Brett. B. Fargo. C. Ferguson.‎ ‎15. What is the woman unsatisfied with? ‎ ‎ A. Her vet's limited services.‎ ‎ B. The prices her vet charged.‎ ‎ C. The difficulty of getting an appointment.‎ ‎16. What might the woman do after the conversation? ‎ ‎ A. Go to her vet. ‎ B. Look online. ‎ C. Go to a special pet store.‎ 听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。‎ ‎17. When will the fire arrive close to Lakewood? ‎ ‎ A. By six o’clock in the evening.‎ ‎ B. By five o’clock in the evening.‎ ‎ C. By six o’clock in the morning.‎ ‎18. Where shouldn’t residents go to escape the fire? ‎ ‎ A. Springfield. ‎ B. Western Hill. ‎ C. Point Cabina Station.‎ ‎19. How long will it take residents to reach the safe zone? ‎ A. Less than ten minutes.‎ B. Less than twenty minutes.‎ C. Less than thirty minutes.‎ ‎20. What are residents advised to do before they leave? ‎ ‎ A. Leave all pets behind.‎ ‎ B. Stay calm and do not panic.‎ ‎ C. Tell the state police where they are going.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) ‎ 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分) ‎ 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C、和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ ‎ A ‎ Zero Waste Awards Who should enter?‎ Entries(参赛作品) are welcomed from anyone who processes waste. While we expect ‎ most entries to come from the UK, we welcome international entries, too. Entrants have been split into the following groups: private sector, public sector, community sector and partnerships.‎ What are the categories?‎ ‎ There’re five categories which are based on the Waste Hierarchy(层级). We appreciate that companies will have different strengths within those categories as they work towards Zero Waste. The broad categories are: waste prevention, re-use, recycle/recover, energy recovery, general.‎ How do I enter?‎ Submitting an entry is really easy! Just follow these few simple steps:‎ ‎1. Carefully read through the category information;‎ ‎2. Write your entry--it should be a maximum of 1,500 words and a word document;‎ ‎3. Arrange your supporting material into a single document--maximum six pages long;‎ ‎4. Complete the simple online entry form.‎ Important dates While entries are welcomed all year round, these are key dates—this is to give the judges plenty of time to read through all the entries! These are listed in entry deadlines column below. Don’t worry if you have just missed one of the entry deadlines, your submission will be automatically entered into the next session.‎ Entry deadlines Judging dates Awards presentation dates ‎1st March ‎12th March ‎4th April ‎1st June ‎12th June ‎4th July ‎1st Sept.‎ ‎12th Sept.‎ ‎4th Oct.‎ ‎1st Dec.‎ ‎12th Dec.‎ ‎4th Jan.‎ ‎*You can submit a maximum of two entries per year—six months apart.‎ Awards ‎ ‎ We understand that working towards Zero Waste is an ongoing journey and as such ‎ the ‎ Zero Waste Awards scheme offers organizations a structure to celebrate their progress along the way. The four awards are: Gold (76-100), Silver (51-75), Bronze (26-50), Highly Commended ‎ ‎(0-25).‎ ‎21. What should you know about your entry when you submit? ‎ ‎ A. It should be at least 1,500 words. ‎ ‎ B. It must go with filling in an online entry form.‎ ‎ C. It had better not be shorter than six pages. ‎ ‎ D. It can be handed in shortly after your previous submission.‎ ‎22. If you submit an entry on March 4th, it will be judged on _______.‎ ‎ A. March 12th B. April 4th C. June 12th D. June 1st ‎ ‎23. What is the author’s purpose of writing the text? ‎ ‎ A. To report the development of Zero Waste.‎ ‎ B. To introduce Zero Waste Awards in detail.‎ ‎ C. To advocate people to join in the recycling movement.‎ ‎ D. To tell people working at Zero Waste is really difficult.‎ ‎ B I had been in the city for some time and was coming home. I missed my boat and decided to travel on an old ship. I knew that it would not be a comfortable journey but I had no time to wait for another boat.‎ Hardly had we left the port when I saw the dog Gulliver, the captain’s favourite dog, for the first time. What a big dog it was! I had never seen one that could frighten me so much! ‎ On the third day the ship caught fire. Nobody tried to put it out. The ship began sinking and all the men rushed to the life-boats. I saw no chance of getting away in a boat. Suddenly I remembered there was a life-raft on the ship. I had no time to lose, so I immediately rushed towards the raft and pushed it overboard.‎ In jumping down onto the raft I hurt myself badly and was unconscious for some ‎ time. When I came to, I found there was no sign of a life-boat. Every man who had been on board the ship must have gone down with her. I was the only one who was saved.‎ The I saw Gulliver was coming fast towards the raft. He struggled a long time before he managed to get onto it. I wanted to push him back into the water but did not dare to move. The dog shook himself, went to the other end of the raft and lay down. I didn’t dare to sleep that night. I must watch him. In the moonlight I could see his eyes were open. He was watching, too.‎ ‎24. In what situation did the author first meet the dog?‎ ‎ A. Upon leaving the port ‎ B. While travelling in the city.‎ ‎ C. While waiting for the boat. ‎ D. Upon getting onto the ship.‎ ‎25. What did the author manage to do when the ship was going down?‎ ‎ A. Put out the fire ‎ B. Board a life boat.‎ ‎ B. Jump into the water. ‎ D. Get away with a raft.‎ ‎26. What is implied about the dog in the last Paragraph?‎ ‎ A. It was unfriendly ‎ B. It had a good sleep.‎ ‎ C. It feared the author ‎ D. It enjoyed the moon.‎ ‎27. What can be a suitable title for the text?‎ ‎ A. Rescuing a Dog ‎ B. Caught in a Fire ‎ C. A Sleepless Night ‎ D. A Narrow Escape C A crisis is on the way. Global warming? The world economy? No, the decline of reading. People are just not doing it anymore, especially the young. Who’s ‎ responsible? What is responsible? The Internet, of course, and everything that comes with it—Facebook, Twitter, etc.‎ There’s been a warning about the coming death of literate civilization for a long time. In the 20th century, first it was the movies, then radio, then television that seemed to end the written world. None did. Reading survived; In fact, it not only survived, but it has developed better. The world is more literate than ever before — there are more and more readers and more and more books.‎ The fact that we often get our reading material online today is not something we should worry over. The electronic and digital revolution of the last two decades has arguably shown the way forward for reading and for writing. Interconnectivity allows for the possibility of a reading experience that was barely imaginable before. Where traditional books had to make do with photographs and illustrations(插图), an e-book can provide readers with an unlimited number of links:to texts, pictures, and videos.‎ ‎ On the other hand, there is the danger of trivialization(碎片化).One Twitter group is offering its followers single-sentence-long“digests”of the great novels. War and Peace in a sentence? You must be joking. We should fear the fragmentation(碎片)of reading. There is the danger that the high-speed connectivity of the Internet will reduce our attention span(时间)—that we will be incapable of reading anything of length or which requires deep concentration.‎ ‎ In such a fast-changing world, in which reality seems to be remade each day, we need the ability to focus and understand what is happening to us. This has always been the function of literature and we should be careful not to let it disappear. Our society needs to be able to imagine the possibility of someone entirely in pace with modern technology but able to make sense of a dynamic, confusing world.‎ ‎28. In Paragraph 2,we can learn .‎ A. the disappearance of traditional books ‎ B. the development of human civilization ‎ C. the historical challenges for reading ‎ D. the birth of pioneering e-books ‎29. According to the passage, the advantage of e-books is .‎ ‎ A.1imited link ‎ B. imaginative design ‎ C. low cost ‎ D. varied contents ‎ ‎30. How does the author feel towards single-sentence-long novels?‎ ‎ A. Doubtful B. Worried C. Shocked D. Hopeful ‎31. What is the main idea of the passage?‎ ‎ A. Technology is an opportunity and a challenge for traditional reading.‎ ‎ B. Technology pushes the way forward for reading and writing.‎ ‎ C. Interconnectivity is a feature of new reading experience.‎ ‎ D. Technology offers a greater variety of reading practice.‎ D Alaska’s state fair, which runs until September 5th, began as a celebration among residents of the Mantanuska Colony, a project under which 200 farm families were moved to Alaska to see whether agriculture could be possible in the coldest state. The state fair lives on, but little more than a decade after the start of the project most of the participants had abandoned their farms. The project was widely seen as a flop.‎ In this state, glaciers cover 300 times more acres than farms. Only 5% of the food consumed is grown locally, compared with 81% nationwide. The growing season is short and summer temperatures chilly. Tomato plants wither(凋谢). Fruit trees, in most parts of the state, are just a dream.‎ Enter the high tunnel: a greenhouse consisting of a metal frame with plastic stretched across it. Its few millimeters of plastic separate crops inside from the great outdoors. But this is enough for Alaskan growers to produce tomatoes as well as sweetcorn, peaches and kiwi fruit, and to boost production of crops by a quarter or more.‎ In a place where no one blinks(眨眼) if you call yourself a fisherman, boat captain or gold miner, an increasing number of Alaskans are thinking of themselves as people ‎ who grow food. Since the start of the programme, the number of farms registered(登记)with the state has nearly doubled. Local restaurants have begun shaping their menus around what neighboring farms can grow.‎ Eight decades ago, the Mantanuska Colony tried to turn farmers into Alaskans. Today, the high tunnels are turning Alaskans into farmers.‎ ‎32. Which can replace the underlined word “flop” in Paragraph 1?‎ A. failure B. surprise C. worry D. problem ‎33. How did the Matanuska project try to help Alaska’s agriculture?‎ A. By planting trees. ‎ B. By moving farmers.‎ C. By building high tunnels. ‎ D. By holding nationwide fairs.‎ ‎34. What can we infer about Alaska today?‎ A. Few people are needed for farming.‎ B. Fishing industries are being ignored.‎ C. Locally-grown tomatoes are on menus.‎ D. Most agricultural fields are abandoned.‎ ‎35. What is the text mainly about?‎ A. Alaska’s new residential programme. ‎ B. Alaska as a chilly and barren state.‎ C. A dream realized in Alaska. ‎ D. Food sources of Alaska.‎ 第二节:(共5小题:每小题2分,满分10分)     根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ Old-fashioned carpooling (拼车) where a group of people take turns driving each other to work has always faced a resistance. In a study by ABC News, 84%of those who drive to work say that they still do it alone. 36 For example, sometimes they simply cannot find anyone to share a ride with. ‎ ‎ 37 NuRide, a company providing online carpooling service, offers daily ‎ travelers not just a web-based list of would-be carpoolers but also a way to arrange a trip online. Here’s how it works: rider seekers enter the positions where their trip will begin and end, the time they want to leave and if they’re willing to drive or just ride in someone else’s car. The website’s search engine then looks for matches and makes lists of the names of traveling companions, along with the car model and the exact time and place to meet for each trip. 38 Then they meet their car mates when it’s time to go.‎ ‎ 39 They are required to provide the name of their employer and a work e-mail address. Both need to be checked before being listed on the website. ‎ So far, NuRide has arranged more man 50,000 rides on the website. 40 ‎ A. NuRide users aren’t riding with total strangers.‎ B. It has resulted in 1.4 million fewer miles driven.‎ C. They insisted that carpooling is just too inconvenient.‎ D. Now technology makes carpooling easier and more fun.‎ E. It is an environmentally friendly and economical way to travel.‎ F. Carpooling reduces travel cost, such as fuel cost and stress of driving.‎ G. People who want to share the ride can show their interest in joining in online.‎ 第三部分:英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分) 第一节:完形填空(共20小题:每小题1.5分,满分30分)   阅读下面的短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ Singing led to a small invention that has been a big help to millions of people.‎ Art Fry sang in a choir(合唱团). He wanted a 41 to mark the songs the choir was going to sing. He ‎42 a piece of paper that was 43 enough so that it would stick to the page, but he didn’t want it to stick so 44 that he couldn’t remove it without 45 the page.‎ ‎ Fry worked for a company that made 46 . One of its workers had made a glue that was sticky but not too 47 and could be used 48 . Fry coated the top of small pieces of paper with the glue. He stuck these to 49 of his notebook. The sticky pieces of paper did a good job of marking Fry’s 50 . People at Art Fry’s company soon found that these sticky notes were good for 51 little notes; they ‎ could be more than just bookmarks.‎ ‎ 52 , the sticky notes didn’t sell very well. So the company that 53 them started giving some away. People weren’t 54 sticking notes on books or papers. Once they saw how 55 the sticky notes were, they started 56 and using them.‎ It’s quite likely that you have 57 these sticky notes. Millions of pads of sticky notes are sold each year. Can you guess 58 of Art Fry’s invention? If you say “Post-it? Notes,” you are 59 . Post-it? Notes are a great 60 .‎ ‎41. A. pen B. company C. way D. worker ‎42. A. marked B. needed C. selected D. discovered ‎43. A. sticky B. soft C. pretty D. powerful ‎ ‎44. A. directly B. deeply C. tightly D. closely ‎45. A. covering B. opening C. turning D. damaging ‎46. A. glue B. paper C. coats D. notebooks ‎47. A. soft B. strong C. dry D. expensive ‎48. A. occasionally B. immediately C. safely D. repeatedly ‎49. A. articles B. notes C. pages D. letters ‎50. A. story B. action C. time D. place ‎51. A. publishing B. sharing C. sending D. writing ‎52. A. As a result B. In addition C. At first D. In fact ‎53. A. changed B. made C. discovered D. delivered ‎54. A. accustomed to B. disappointed at C. satisfied with D. tired of ‎ ‎55. A. popular B. interesting C. important D. handy ‎56. A. enjoying B. buying C. showing D. selling ‎57. A. used B. found C. forgotten D. removed ‎58. A. value B. name C. price D. function ‎59. A. brave B. honest C. right D. serious ‎60. A. invention B. challenge C. suggestion D. opinion 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)   阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ In China, a site that amazed me was one 61 (provide) by nature---the Hukou Waterfall on the Yellow River, the mother river of the country.‎ The Yellow River was a main source of transportation in the past. Many ports and bridges were built and destroyed by the river’s strong current(水流), and it was 62 (challenge) for the locals back then to build a bridge 63 was strong enough to withstand(承受) the current of the Yellow River. ‎ About 1,500 years ago, the locals of Puzhou, which is now Yongji, 64 (make) several iron oxen anchors, each 65 (weigh) more than seventy metric tons to hold a floating bridge across the Yellow River. It was amazing to see these 66 person and I was astonished by the 67 (wise) and workmanship of people back then.‎ The hotels that 68 (arrange) for us to stay in were among the best in each city we visited, which sums up 69 China was shown to me, with sights both beautiful and amazing 70 kind and helpful people.‎ 第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分)‎ 第一节:短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处,每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。 增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。 删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。 修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。 ‎ 注意:1.每处错误及其修改均限一词。     2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。‎ Many memories faded away. However, never I forget the sports meeting on a hot Friday morning, that has encouraged me a lot in my life afterwards. Having prepared ‎ for a long time, all of the classmates were sure that I would win the basketball match undoubtedly. Far beyond our expectation, our captain had his arm been hurt when the match is approaching. How terribly it was! Though all of us tried to make up for the disadvantage, we lost a match by one score. We burst into tears at that moment. Saw this, our head teacher comforted us, “Nothing is more important than your friendship and your sense of teamworks. Success still belong to you.”‎ 第二节 书面表达(满分25分)‎ 假如你是李华,你的英国朋友David 将来你校参加文化交流活动,请写信告诉他相关情况,内容包括:‎ ‎1.时间:‎1月5日至11日;‎ ‎2.具体内容:介绍中英节日习俗、参观城市博物馆、举办晚会等;‎ ‎3.询问David来中国最期待的事情。‎ 注意:(1)词数100左右;‎ ‎ (2)可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。‎ ‎ (3)开头结尾已给出,不计入总词数。‎ Dear David,‎ How are things with you?___________________________________________________‎ ‎________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ Looking forward to hearing from you soon. ‎ Yours,‎ Li Hua 南昌二中2017~2018学年度上学期第三次考试 高三英语试卷参考答案 听力理解 1-5 CCACA 6-10 BAACA 11-15 BCCBB 16-20 BABCB 阅读理解 21-23 BCC 24-27 ADCD 28—31 CDBA 32-35 ABCC 七选五 CDGAB 完型 ‎ ‎41. C 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. D 46. A 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. D ‎51. D 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. D 56. B 57. A 58. B 59. C 60. A 短文填空:‎ ‎61. provided 62. challenging 63. which /that 64. made 65. weighing ‎66. in 67. wisdom 68. were arranged 69. how 70. and 改错: ‎ 第一节:‎ Many memories faded away. However, never ∧ I forget the sports meeting on a hot Friday ‎ will morning, that has encouraged me a lot in my life afterwards. Having prepared for a long time,all which(或加and)‎ of the classmates were sure that I would win the basketball match undoubtedly. Far beyond our ‎ ‎ we expectation, our captain had his arm been hurt when the match is approaching. How terribly ‎ ‎ was terrible ‎ it was! Though all of us tried to make up for the disadvantage, we lost a match by one score. We ‎ ‎ the burst into tears at that moment. Saw this, our head teacher comforted us, “Nothing is more Seeing important than your friendship and your sense of teamworks. Success still belong to you.”‎ ‎ teamwork belongs ‎ 参考范文: ‎ Dear David,‎ How are things with you? I hear you are coming to our school for Sino-British cultural exchange. Now I’m writing to tell you the dates and activities we’re going to have. ‎ The cultural exchange will last a week, from January 5 to January 11. In the first five days, all kinds of activities will be held to introduce the major festivals of our two countries. Following this will be a visit to the local city’s museum, and an evening party on the last day. What is your highest expectation for the visit? Please let me know.‎ Looking forward to hearing from you soon. ‎ Best wishes!‎ Yours, ‎ Li Hua

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