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北京市朝阳区高三年级第一次综合练习
英语学科测试 2019.3
（考试时间100分钟 满分120分)
本试卷共10页。考生务必将答案答在答题卡上，在试卷上作答无效。
第一部分：知识运用（共两节，45分）
第一节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分, 共15分）
阅读下列短文，根据短文内容填空。在未给提示词的空白处仅填写 1个适当的单词，在给出提示词的空白处用括号内所给词的正确形式填空。
A
John Carter was rescued from the sea near his holiday home yesterday. The accident happened while he __1__ (walk) along a steep cliff at the edge of the sea. He was blown off by a strong wind and __2__ (fall) into the sea, 30 meters below. Luckily, a woman saw him in the sea soon afterwards and she called the police rescue service. Mr. Carter was taken to hospital with a __3__ (break) arm. “I’m very lucky to be alive,” he said. “I can’t thank the woman enough.”
B
Many elephants can paint. In fact, elephants in zoos sometimes draw on the ground __4__ a stick. Seeing this, some trainers teach the elephants __5__ they can hold paintbrushes, and encourage them to choose colors and paint. Of course, not every painting is good. Just like humans, only some elephants are very creative. Now, an online gallery sells paintings by these elephant artists. By doing this, the gallery hopes to earn money __6__ (protect) elephants.
C
Golden Gate Park is in San Francisco, California. It is one of the largest urban __7__ (park) in the United States. Over one million colorful flowers, trees and other plants grow in the park. But originally most of the park __8__ (cover) in sand. After a lot of work, it was finally built in 1870. Today, there are many people __9__ (visit) the park every day. They play basketball, soccer, golf and many other sports there. The park is closed in many places to traffic so people can walk, cycle, or skate __10__ (free).
第二节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，共30分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A Game of Light and Shade
It was a sunny day. I had gone up and down the tower when, outside the door at the
foot, a blind man came toward me. In a moment, he disappeared up the stairs. I looked at the sign that said “To the Tower”, and decided to __11__ him.
I caught up with him in the ticket office. There I was __12__ to see the attendant (工作人员) selling him a ticket as if he were any other visitor. Then, with the ticket in one hand and __13__ the wall with the fingers of the other, the blind man reached the stairs __14__ to the hallway.
“That man is blind. What would a blind man climb up the tower for?” I said to the attendant, expecting him to show some __15__, but he didn’t answer.
“Not the __16__ certainly,” I said. “Perhaps he wants to __17__.”
I bought a ticket and __18__ up the stairs. The man hadn’t gone as far as I __19__. A third of the way up the tower, I heard his __20__. I slowed down and followed him at a little __21__. He stopped from time to time. When he got to the balcony (阳台), I was a dozen steps __22__. As I reached it, I saw him at the corner of the tower.
At last, after ten minutes, I __23__ him. “Excuse me,” I said as politely as I could, “but I am curious to know __24__ you came up.”
He smiled. “Coming up the stairs, you will notice how not just light but sun __25__ into the tower through the narrow windows here and there, so that you can feel the __26__—the cool stairs suddenly become quite warm—and how up here behind the wall there is __27__, but as soon as going opposite a window you can find the sun. There is no __28__ so good as this for feeling the difference between light and shade. It is not the first time I’ve come up.”
The blind man seemed quite __29__, just like a child who was enjoying his favorite games. He told me the truth that blind men can also find the beauty in life __30__ they cannot enjoy the sights of the world.
11. A. accept B. follow C. control D. visit
12. A. frightened B. disappointed C. surprised D. embarrassed
13. A. touching B. climbing C. hitting D. covering
14. A. pointing B. attaching C. contributing D. leading
15. A. respect B. doubt C. concern D. sympathy
16. A. view B. test C. prize D. trick
17. A. kick B. jump C. relax D. escape
18. A. struggled B. explored C. wandered D. hurried
19. A. promised B. examined C. imagined D. confirmed
20. A. steps B. words C. secrets D. cheers
21. A. standard B. distance C. expense D. intention
22. A. ahead B. around C. outside D. behind
23. A. recognized B. surrounded C. approached D. witnessed
24. A. why B. how C. when D. whether
25. A. knocks B. pours C. slides D. bursts
26. A. trend B. reaction C. change D. honor
27. A. light B. space C. mess D. shade
28. A. place B. signal C. object D. period
29. A. nervous B. content C. curious D. patient
30. A. unless B. because C. once D. although
第二部分：阅读理解（共两节，40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Get Involved! Make a Donation!
So what is rewilding?
Imagine our natural homes growing instead of shrinking. Imagine species (物种) diversifying instead of declining. That’s rewilding. Rewilding is ecological restoration. Rewilding offers hope for wildlife, humans and the planet.
Why is rewilding important and necessary?
● Our natural ecology is broken. The places where you would expect wildlife to exist have been reduced to wet deserts. The seabed has been destroyed and there have been no living creatures any more.
● Our wildlife is disappearing. Many wonderful species have declined over the past century. We’ve lost more of our large animals than any European country.
● We need keystone species. These vital species, including top predators (食肉动物), drive ecological processes. Their loss has worsened our living systems.
● Nature looks after us. Good natural ecology can provide us with clean air and water, prevent flooding and store carbon. Rewilding can leave the world in a better state than it is today.
What are challenges?
As a long-term project, our “rewilding britain” has its challenges. Many people are not interested, because we have got used to the lack of native forests. Many farmers oppose the idea. They thought it a crazy idea to bring back predators because they would start killing farm animals. It takes time to educate them. Above all, we need
money! So we need your help!
Make a donation.
Help us bring back living systems and restore wild nature!
With your help we can...
● Open up new chances for rewilding and push for change.
● Develop tools to educate, influence and spread the word.
Thanks for your support.
31. Which of the following is the result of rewilding?
A. Species become various. B. A lot of animals disappear.
C. Environments are destroyed. D. Natural disasters happen regularly.
32. According to the passage, one of the challenges at present is ______.
A. people’s doubts B. a lack of volunteers
C. a shortage of time D. farmers’ disagreement
33. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To introduce a new project.
B. To call on people to give money.
C. To warn people of the natural ecology.
D. To convince people to change their mind.
B
Flying High
Barrington Irving made his historic flight and founded an educational non-profit-making organization. His message for kids: “The only thing that separates you from scientists is determination, hard work and a strong liking for what you want to achieve.” The secret, he believes, is having a dream in the first place, and that starts with learning experiences that inspire kids to build careers.
The moment of inspiration for Irving came at the age of 15 in his parents’ bookstore. One customer, a professional pilot, asked Irving if he’d thought about becoming a pilot. “I told him I didn’t think I was smart enough; but the next day he took me to the cockpit (驾驶舱) of the commercial airplane he flew, and just like that I was hooked.”
To follow his dream, Irving turned down a football scholarship to the University of Florida. He washed airplanes to earn money for a flight school and increased his flying skills by practising at home on a $40 flight simulator (模拟) video game. Then another dream took hold: flying alone around the world. He faced more than 50 rejections for sponsorship before convincing some companies to donate aircraft components. He took off with no weather radar, no de-icing system, and just $30 in his pocket. “I like to do
things people say I can’t do.”
After 97 days, 26 stops and dozens of thunderstorms, he touched down to a cheering crowd in Miami. “It was seeing so many young people watching and listening that pushed me into giving back with my knowledge and experience.” Irving has been doing it ever since. He set up his non-profit-making organization, Experience Aviation (航空), aiming to increase the numbers of youth in aviation and science-related careers. Kids attend programmes dealing with hands-on robotics projects and flight simulator challenges.
“We want to create chances for students to accomplish something amazing,” he notes. Perhaps Irving’s most powerful educational tool is the example his own life provides. After landing his record-breaking flight at age 23, he said, “Everyone told me I was too young, that I didn’t have enough experience, strength, or knowledge. They told me it would take forever and I’d never come home. Well ... guess what?”
34. According to Irving, what is the most important in achieving success?
A. Meeting people who provide unexpected help.
B. Getting a chance to study technical knowledge.
C. Having something specific that you want to accomplish.
D. Developing communication with different organizations.
35. What Irving replied to the pilot in the bookstore suggested that ______.
A. he felt embarrassed to refuse the offer
B. he was doubtful about his own abilities
C. he knew his efforts would be rewarded
D. he realized immediately how lucky he was
36. What can we learn about Irving in Paragraph 3?
A. He chose to reduce his budget as low as possible.
B. He was finally given enough money to keep going.
C. He got the most useful flying tips from his video game.
D. He took on a further challenge after he knew how to fly.
37. Irving set up his non-profit-making organization because ______.
A. he hoped to become a public figure
B. he expected to start a business in other fields
C. he saw there was great interest in what he was doing
D. he thought he could teach more than flight schools could
C
Training the Brain
People who can accomplish unbelievable tasks, such as memorizing thousands of
random numbers in under an hour, state that they just have normal brains. Some memory superstars compete in Olympic-like World Memory Championships. These mental athletes, or MAs for short, can memorize names of dozens of strangers in a few minutes or any poem handed them. Ed Cooke, a 24-year-old MA, explains they see themselves as participants rescuing the long-lost art of memory training. These techniques existed not to recall useless information, but to cut into the brain basic text and ideas.
A study in the journal Nature examined eight people who finished near the top of the World Memory Championships. The scientists examined whether their brains were fundamentally different from everyone else’s or whether they were simply making better use of memorizing abilities we all possess. They put the MAs and control subjects into brain scanners and had them memorize numbers and photographs. The result surprised everyone. The brains of the MAs and those of the control subjects were indistinguishable. On every test, the MAs scored in the normal range. However, when the scientists examined what part of the brain was used during a memory activity, they found the MAs relied more heavily on areas in the brain involved in spatial memory.
MAs offer an explanation: anything can be fixed upon our memories and kept in order by constructing a building in the imagination and filling it with pictures of what needs to be recalled. Dating back to the fifth century, the building is called a memory palace. Even as late as the fourteenth century, when there were copies of any text, scholars needed to remember what was read to them. Reading to remember requires a different technique than speed reading. If something is made memorable, it has to be repeated. Until relatively recently, people read only a few books intensively (细致地) again and again, usually aloud. Today we read extensively, usually only once and without continuous focus.
So the great difference is the ability to create impressive pictures in mind and to do it quickly. Using memory palaces, MAs create memorized pictures. For example, recombine the pictures to form unforgettable scenes such as the ways through a town. One competitor used his own body parts to help him memorize a 57,000-word dictionary.
Anyone who wishes to train the mind needs first to create fantastical palaces in the imagination. Then they should cut each building into cubbyholes for memories. In a short amount of time, they will notice improvement with remembering things. To keep the skill sharp, MAs deliberately empty their palaces after competitions, so they can reuse them and they recommend that beginners do the same.
38. We can learn from Paragraph 2 that a mental athlete ______. []
A. owns a brain that is larger in size
B. shows a gift in mental ability tests
C. uses the memorizing technique better
D. depends less on the areas that control spatial memory
39. Why does the author mention “speed reading” in Paragraph 3?
A. To discuss the memorizing technique in the fifth century.
B. To give the reason why people read only a few books carefully.
C. To explain the text fourteenth century scholars had to remember.
D. To compare the type of reading nowadays with that of earlier times.
40. What can be inferred from Paragraph 4?
A. There is a variety of unforgettable scenes.
B. Memory palaces can be quickly forgotten.
C. Impressive pictures are in actual buildings.
D. One person probably has 57,000 body parts.
41. What does the underlined word “cubbyholes” in the last paragraph probably mean?
A. Small spaces. B. Blacks holes.
C. Technical skills. D. Different numbers.
D
Early or Later Day Care
Many young parents are confused about whether their children should have early day care, and there have always been different views on this subject.
The British psychoanalyst John Bowlby believes that separation from parents during the sensitive “attachment” period from birth to three may scar a child’s personality and lead to psychological problems in later life. Some people have drawn the conclusion from Bowlby’s work that children should not be subjected to day care before three because of the parental separation it causes, and many people do believe this.
According to Bowlby, a great deal of psychological harm can occur when young children are separated from their parents. If they are left without touch for a while, they will have a higher stress level. Parents’ influence on their children’s well-being may never be greater than during the earliest years of life, when a child’s brain is developing rapidly and when nearly all of her or his experiences are shaped by parents and the family environment.
However, there are critics. Some anthropologists (人类学家) point out that the love affair between children and parents found in modern societies does not usually exist in traditional societies. There has been a long history of the fact that father and mother did not bring up their children alone. Plato, around 394 B.C., argued that a system of early
child care would free women to participate in society. Results from Israeli and Dutch studies show that child-raising duties are more evenly distributed among a broader group of people.
Besides, studies have reported that early day care has a neutral or slightly positive effect on children’s development. They learn the benefits of being socially smart, understanding the concept of sharing and caring. They promote concentration skills, which is very important in their learning. There are games where children are taught basic language and mathematical skills through stories and everyday examples.
Common sense tells us that early day care would not be so widespread if children had problems with it. But Bowlby’s analysis raises the possibility that it has delayed effects. The possibility that such care might lead to more mental illness 15 or 20 years later can only be explored by the use of statistics. Whatever the long-term effects, parents sometimes find the immediate effects difficult to deal with. Children under three dislike leaving their parents and show unhappiness. At the age of three almost all children find it easy to go to the nursery. The matter, then, is far from being clearly known, though experience and available evidence indicate that early day care is reasonable for young children.
42. The passage mainly argues whether ______.
A. children over three will accept school education
B. children under three should be sent to nursery schools
C. the family relationship is different in traditional societies
D. early day care should be totally replaced in modern societies
43. Which of the following supports Bowlby’s theory?
A. Early day care wouldn’t be so popular if it had negative effects.
B. Separation from parents for young children is common in history.
C. Parents find the immediate effects of early day care difficult to deal with.
D. Studies show early day care has a positive effect on children’s development.
44. The author’s attitude towards early day care is that ______.
A. children under three should stay with their parents
B. it has potential benefits for both children and parents
C. the bad effect of it on children will disappear as they grow up
D. it is controversial and the settlement calls for the use of statistics
45. Which of the following shows the development of ideas in the passage?
A. B.
C. D.
I: Introduction P: Point Sp: Sub-point (次要点) C: Conclusion
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Can We Stop Food Longing Through Imaginary Eating?
Are you fighting an urge to reach for chocolate? Then, let it melt in your mind, not in your mouth. According to the recent research, imagining eating a specific food reduces your interest in that food, so you eat less of it.
This reaction to repeated exposure to food—being less interested in something because you’ve experienced it too much—is called habituation. ____46____
The research is the first to show that habituation can occur through the power of the mind. “If you just think about the food itself—how it tastes and smells—that will increase your appetite,” said Carey Morewedge, a well-known psychologist. “It might be better to force yourself to repeatedly think about chewing and swallowing the food in order to reduce your longing. ____47____ Visualizing yourself eating chocolate wouldn’t prevent you from eating lots of cheese,” he added.
Morewedge conducted an interesting experiment. 51 subjects were divided into three groups. One group was asked to imagine putting 30 coins into a laundry machine and then eating three chocolates. ____48____ Another group was asked to imagine
putting three coins into a laundry machine and then eating 30 chocolates. Lastly, a control group imagined just putting 33 coins into the machine—with no chocolates. ____49____ When they said they had finished, these were taken away and weighed. The results showed the group that had imagined eating 30 chocolates each ate fewer of the chocolates than the other groups.
____50____ Physical signals—that full stomach feeling—are only part of what tells us we’ve finished a meal. The research suggests that psychological effects, such as habituation, also influence how much a person eats. It may lead to new behavioral techniques for people looking to eat more healthily, or have control over other habits.
A. What’s more, this only works with the specific food you’ve imagined.
B. People were advised to try different methods to perform the experiment.
C. For example, a tenth bite is desired less than the first bite, according to the study.
D. All of them then ate freely from bowls containing the same amount of chocolate each.
E. It meant those who repeatedly imagined eating would concern about some specific food.
F. This requires the same motor skills as eating small chocolates from a packet, the study says.
G. This study is part of the research looking into what makes us eat more than we actually need.
第三部分：书面表达（共两节，35分）
第一节 （15分）
假设你是红星中学高三的学生李华。你班交换生Jim将要参加“学在中国”留学生汉语演讲比赛，来信向你咨询。请你给他写一封邮件，内容包括：
1. 推荐一个演讲话题；
2. 说明推荐的理由；
3. 建议他做哪些准备工作。
注意：1. 词数不少于50；
2. 邮件的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Jim,
_______________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
（请务必将作文写在答题卡指定区域内）
第二节 （20分）
假设你是红星中学高三的学生李华。请根据以下四幅图的先后顺序，介绍上个月你参加学校组织的“绿色出行，从我做起”活动的完整过程，并以“Green Travel in My Family”为题，给校刊“英语角”写一篇英文稿件。词数不少于60。
Green Travel in My Family
_______________________________________________________________________________
（请务必将作文写在答题卡指定区域内）
北京市朝阳区高三年级第一次综合练习
英语学科测试答案 2019. 3
第一部分：知识运用（共两节，45分）
第一节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分）
1. was walking 2. fell 3. broken 4. with 5. how
6. to protect 7. parks 8. was covered 9. visiting 10. freely
第二节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，共30分）
11—15 BCADC 16—20 ABDCA 21—25 BDCAB 26—30 CDABD
第二部分：阅读理解（共两节，40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分）
31—35 ADBCB 36—40 DCCDA 41—45 ABCDB
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）
46—50 CAFDG
第三部分：书面表达（共两节，35分）
第一节（15分）
一、评分原则：
1．本题总分为15分，按4个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．评分时应考虑：内容是否完整，条理是否清楚，交际是否得体，语言是否准确。
4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5．词数少于50，从总分中减去1分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第一档
（13分－15分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容完整，条理清楚；
·交际得体，表达时充分考虑到了交际的需求；体现出较强的语言运用能力。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
（9分－12分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求；
·所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求；
·语法或用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
（4分－8分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
·内容不完整；
·所用词汇有限，语法或用词方面的错误影响了对写作内容的理解。
未能清楚地传达信息。
第四档
（1分－3分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
·写了少量相关信息；
·语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对所写内容的理解。
0分
未传达任何信息；所写内容与要求无关。
三、One possible version:
Dear Jim,
I’m glad to know that you’ll take part in the “Studying in China” speech contest. I’d like to give you some suggestions.[]
I recommend that you talk about the courses on Chinese traditional culture you’ve attended. The major reason is that they introduce the real treasure in human history. Besides, since you’ve taken the courses systematically, you’re sure to have a deep understanding of them.
To do it well, I think you should choose impressive examples to gain the recognition of the judges. Moreover, you have to practice your spoken Chinese to express yourself more clearly and fluently. Speaking skills are also needed, for they can help maximize the effectiveness of your speech.
I really hope my advice will be helpful. Wish you a great success.
Yours,[]
Li Hua
第二节（20分）
一、评分原则：
1．本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．评分时应考虑：内容要点的完整性、上下文的连贯性、词汇和句式的多样性及语言的准确性。
4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5．词数少于60，从总分中减去1分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第一档
（18分－20分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
·覆盖了所有内容要点；
·运用了多样的句式和丰富的词汇；[]
·语法或用词方面有个别错误，但为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致；体现了较强的语言运用能力；
·有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，所写内容连贯、结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
（15分－17分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
·覆盖了所有内容要点；
·运用的句式和词汇能满足任务要求；
·语法和用词基本准确，少许错误主要为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致；
·使用了简单的语句间连接成分，所写内容连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
（12分－14分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
·覆盖了内容要点；
·运用的句式和词汇基本满足任务要求；
·语法和用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档
（6分－11分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
·漏掉或未描述清楚内容要点；
·所用句式和词汇有限；
·语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。
未能清楚地传达信息。
第五档
（1分－5分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
·明显遗漏主要内容；
·句式单调、词汇贫乏；
·语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对所写内容的理解。
0分
未能传达任何信息；所写内容与要求无关。
三、内容要点：
1. 看到通知
2. 全家商议
3. 骑车上学/乘车上班
4. 分享交流
四、One possible version:
Green Travel in My Family
Last month, our school organized an activity named “Green Travel, Start with Me”, which has played an educative role.
Seeing the proposal on the bulletin board, my classmates and I were deeply interested and had a heated discussion. Everyone expressed their willingness to participate. After getting home, I talked to my parents about my ideas. They were very supportive, saying they wouldn’t drive to work from the next day. In the following
weeks, as we promised, I went to school by bike every day, while my parents went to work by bus. Tired as we were, we all felt happy. Last Friday, a class meeting was held as scheduled. Some parents were invited, including my father and mother. We shared our experiences and thoughts during the activity. All of us held the same view that environmental protection is so important for our life.
Through the activity, we find it our duty to protect the environment. I hope more and more people will join us in green travel.
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