2018年学业水平模拟考试（二）英语试题
本试题分第I卷（选择题）和第II卷（非选择题）两部分，共10页，满分150分。考试时间为120分钟。
第I卷（选择题 共110分）
注意事项：
每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
I. 听力测试 （30分）
A）听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。(7.5)
1. A. Gina likes swimming. B. That’s my brother Nick. C. Helen is eight years old.
2. A. He doesn’t like math. B. I don’t have a car. C. I won’t think about it.
3. A. Why don’t you go to the movies?
B. Who did you go shopping with?
C. What would you like to have for dinner?
4. A. Let him do the dishes. B. Fold the clothes, please. C. How wonderful the program is!
5. A. Why do you think it might be an alien?
B. How can I get the pronunciation right?
C. What will happen if I don’t succeed?
B）听录音，从每题A、B、C三幅图画中选出与听到的对话内容相符的一项。每段对话听两遍。
6. A. B. C.
7. A. B. C.
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8. A. B. C.
9. A. B. C.
10. A. B. C.
C）在录音中，你将听到一段对话及五个问题。请根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。对话及问题听两遍。
11. A. Next weekend. B. This weekend. C. Last weekend.
12. A. Five. B. Two. C. Three.
13. A. Fruits and vegetables. B. Meat and bread. C. Food and drink.
14. A. His dad. B. His mom. C. His friend.
15. A. Cooking. B. Shopping. C. Cleaning.
D）在录音中，你将听到一篇短文及五个问题。请根据短文内容及问题选择正确答案。短文及问题听两遍。
16. A. Her sons. B. Her daughters. C. By herself.
17. A. On Christmas Day. B. On Mother’s Day. C. On their mother’s birthday.
18. A. A big house. B. A beautiful car. C. A small bird.
19. A. She often drove it. B. She didn’t use it. C. She thought it was great.
20. A. It was hurt. B. It was sold. C. It was eaten.
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II. 读音选词 根据所给句意和音标，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。（5分）
21. Could you please tell me where I can ___________ / pɑ:k / my car?
A. pack B. park C. pick D. pass
22. True friends ______ / riːtʃ / for your hand and touch your heart.
A. reach B. read C. raise D. refuse
23. This restaurant in Quancheng Square has a _________ / hju:dʒ / screen on the wall.
A. hold B. hurt C. hide D. huge
24. My biggest challenge is learning how to ______ / bI'heIv / at the dinner table.
A. better B. believe C. behave D. beside
25. Working as volunteers is a great ______________ / Ik'spIərIəns / for the young students.
A. exception B. expression C. experiment D. experience
III. 选择填空 从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。（30分）
26. —Do you have _________ email address?
—Yes, I have one.
A. the B. an C. a D. /
27. —Tom, are these books yours?
—No, _______ aren’t. The books are Lily’s.
A. them B. they C. their D. theirs
28. —Fruits are good for health. Would you like some more _______, Jack?
—OK, Mum.
A. milk B. strawberries C. eggs D. noodles
29. — your friend Tim have a new iPad?
－No, he doesn’t, but I have one.
A. Are B. Do C. Is D. Does
30.—Hurry up, Tom. we’ll be late for the movie.
—OK, I will.
A. But B. Or C. And D. So
31. The “teacher-free exam” means that students take their exams _______ teachers. Students must be responsible for their behaviors.
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A. without B. with C. through D. by
32. —________ is your birthday, Andy?
—It’s on June 3rd.
A. What B. Where C. When D. Why
33.—I always forget what I want to buy when I go to the market.
—Well, you can make a ________ of things you want to buy.
A. habit B. list C. pack D. wish
34. —Why do you like reading so many books?
—The more you read, ________ you’ll be.
A. clever B. the cleverer C. worse D. the worse
35. —Thanks for helping me when I am in trouble.
—________! We are good friends, aren’t we?
A. Never mind B. With pleasure C. My pleasure D. That sounds good
36. —Tomorrow is our father’s birthday. Let’s do something for our dad.
—Good idea. We should always _______ father’s love for us.
A. explain B. suppose C. wonder D. value
37. —Whose blue bike is this?
—I don’t know, but it _____be Mary’s. Her favorite color is red.
A. can’t B. mustn’t C. can D. must
38. —I bought forty-one postcards for my classmates yesterday, Sue.
—There are totally fifty students in your class. You’d better get ______ more postcards.
A. nine B. ninth C. eight D. eighth
39. —Mom, I’ll have a school trip tomorrow.
—_________!
A. Welcome to our school B. Congratulations
C. Catch you tomorrow D. Have a good trip
40. —Can you tell the difference between the two pictures?
—Difference? Oh, no. They look quite ________.
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A. similar B. different C. strange D. interesting
41. What kind of public transportation will make people in Jinan feel more and more convenient in the future?
A. B. C. D.
42. —Don’t compare yourself with ________ else, just be yourself.
—You do seem to have a point.
A. nobody B. somebody C. anybody D. everybody
43. —How about going for a picnic at Yellow River Forest Park next weekend?
—Wow, it ________ like a great idea! You really know what I want.
A. smells B. sounds C. looks D. tastes
44..—______ the test paper carefully before you hand in it.
—OK, Mr. Wang.
A. Check B. Checks C. Checking D. To check
45. —Alex, go and clean your bedroom.
—I ________ it. It’s clean and tidy now.
A. have cleaned B. cleaned C. have left D. left
46. —How is Lucy’s English?
—She always does very well in her English exams. But she can _____ understand English films.
A. always B. hardly C. easily D. already
47. My friends and I are interested in drawing, but _______ of us is good at it.
A. both B. all C. none D. neither
48. —The coffee tastes so good. _________
—Certainly. I’m very glad you love it.
A. Why not have a taste? B. May I have another cup?
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C. Where did you buy it? D. What about a cup of coffee?
49. Don’t________ till tomorrow what should be done today.
A. put down B. put off C. put out D. put up
50. A lot of students in this University _________ abroad as exchange students last year.
A. was studied B. send C. were sent D. study
51. —Do you want to watch a game show or a talk show?
—______________, because it always makes me laugh.
A. Yes, I do B. No, I don’t
C. I prefer a game show D. I’m not sure
52. —Have you heard that Mr. Zhang saved his neighbor from a big fire last night?
—Yes. __________ brave the young man is!
A. What a B. How C. What D. How a
53. If we don’t save water, there ________ less fresh water on the earth.
A. will have B. has C. will be D. is
54. —How long have Linda and Alan ________?
— For two months.
A. joined the club B. got to Jinan
C. been married D. bought the new house
55.—Excuse me, do you know ________?
—Sure. It means “Artificial Intelligence”.
A. how to look up a new word like “AI” B. how can I look up a new word like “AI”
C. what “AI” means D. what does “AI” mean
IV. 完形填空 阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。（10分）
A doctor came into the hospital in a hurry after being called for an operation(手术). He changed his 56 quickly and went right to the operation room. After seeing him, the boy’s father 57 , “Why did you take such long time to come? Don’t you know that my son’s life is in danger?”
The doctor smiled and said, “I am sorry, I wasn’t in the 58 and I came as fast
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as I could after receiving the call. And now, I wish you’d 59 so that I can do my work”. “Calm down?! What if 60 son was in this room right now, would you calm down?” said the father 61 . The doctor smiled again and came into the operation room without saying 62 .
The operation took some hours and the doctor went out happily, “Thank goodness! Your son is safe now!” And without waiting for the father’s reply, he carried on his way running. “ 63 you have any question, ask the nurse!”
“Why couldn’t he 64 a moment so that I can ask about my son,” complained the father. The nurse answered 65 tears(眼泪) coming down her face, “His son died yesterday in a road accident. He was in the burial(葬礼) when we called him. And now he left running to finish his son’s burial.”
56. A. phones B. bags C. clothes D. books
57. A. explained B. continued C. laughed D. shouted
58. A. hospital B. school C. station D. restaurant
59. A. keep down B. calm down C. sit down D. write down
60. A. his B. your C. my D. her
61. A. angrily B. clearly C. happily D. proudly
62. A. something B. everything C. anything D. nothing
63. A. Before B. If C. Because D. Though
64. A. smile B. keep C. sit D. wait
65. A. against B. for C. with D. at
V补全对话 阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。（5分）
A: Welcome to our radio game show. Hello, this is DJ Maimai. Nice to meet you!
B: Hello, Mr. DJ. Nice to meet you, too. I’m so lucky that I can call up!
A: Yeah. Now let’s get it started. 66
B: Yes, I’m ready. Let’s go!
A: OK, now listen carefully. 67
B: Because people there are so friendly, food there is so delicious and scenery there is so beautiful.
A: Quite good. Now, next question. 68
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B: I love classical music very much. And I can play the piano well in my spare time.
A: Well done! Next question will be a little harder. Which person below is a master pianist? A, Jacky Chan. B, Yao Ming. C, Mo Yan. D, Maksim Mrvica.
B: 69 I’ve listened to his music pieces since I was a kid.
A: Wow, amazing! One more question, 70
B: Yes. Croatian Rhapsody(克罗地亚狂想曲), Kolibre, Exodus and The Flight of the Bumble-Bee.
A: Unbelievable! You are the winner today! You just won two VIP tickets for Maksim Mrvica’s concert on June 6th. Congratulations! Thank you for calling.
B: Oh, I can’t believe it! Thank you, Mr. DJ!
66. A. It doesn’t matter. B. No problem.
C. I’m glad to be here. D. Are you ready?
67. A. Can you tell us why people like Jinan? B. Can you tell us how to travel there?
C. Can you imagine the life there? D. Can you tell us where you worked?
68. A. Do you like music? B. Did you get used to the life there?
C. Do you like classical music or pop music? D. What do you think of Africa?
69. A. I think B, Yao Ming, is the correct answer. B. I choose A, Jacky Chan.
C. I guess C, Mo Yan. D. The answer is D, Maksim Mrvica.
70. A. Can you tell me four famous pieces of him? B. Do you like dancing to the music?
C. Where will the concert take place? D. When is the concert going to start?
VI. 阅读理解 阅读下列短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（30分）
A
“We should do something nice for the old people of our town,” the teacher said to her class one day. “What could we do?”
“Can we give them a picnic?” one of the children asked. “We can send out invitations and bring cakes and sausages and all kinds of good things to eat.”
“That's very good idea,” the teacher said. “We'll ask all the old people to a picnic by the river.”
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The children worked hard getting ready for the picnic. Their parents made cakes and pies or gave money, and the children wrote invitation cards to the old people. Then they took the cards to the old people's homes.
On the morning of the picnic the sky was blue and the sun was shining. The children were all looking forward to giving the old people a happy day.
Then one of the children said. “Oh! We forgot to invite Mrs. Waller.”
They did not like Mrs. Waller. She looked like a witch (女巫).
“We must invite her now,” the teacher said. “She will be hurt and angry if we don't ask her.”
She looked around the class and then pointed at one of the boys. “Tom, take an invitation card to her house. Apologize (道歉) for being late. Don't tell her we forgot her.”
Tom did not want to go to Mrs. Waller's house, but he was a brave boy, and said, “All right, Miss Lee.”
He went to the old woman's house and knocked on the door. Mrs. Waller opened it. She looked very angry.
“Well,” she said, “what is it? What do you want?”
Tom gave her the invitation card and said, “I'm sorry we did not ask you before, but please come to our picnic. It's a beautiful day.”
Mrs. Waller knew that the children thought she was a witch. She guessed that they had forgotten her.
“You're too late,” the woman said. “It's a beautiful day now, but I've already arranged (安排) for rain this afternoon.”
71. What did the children decide to do?
A. They decided to visit the old witch.
B. They decided to help their teacher.
C. They decided to give a picnic for some old people.
D. They decided to cook cakes and sausage themselves.
72. Where did the children have the picnic?
A. At their school. B. At home. C. In the old people's home. D. By the river.
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73. Why didn't the children want to invite Mrs. Waller?
A. They did not know where she lived. B. She didn't like picnics.
C. They were scared of her. D. She was very old.
74. Why did the teacher say they must invite Mrs. Waller?
A. Because she did not want to hurt Mrs. Waller.
B. Because she was scared of her.
C. Because she wanted to punish the children.
D. Because she liked her.
75. What did Mrs. Waller say she had done when she realized they had forgotten her?
A. She had arranged for it to be a rainy day.
B. She had locked Tom in a closet so that he could not got to the picnic.
C. She had changed the date of the picnic.
D. She had said bad things about the teacher.
B
Think of all the things you throw away: juice bottles, soda cans, candy covers. It adds up. How much rubbish do you produce? Americans throw away about 1 ton of rubbish per person every year. That's 2000 pounds of rubbish! Most of the rubbish gets covered in big holes in the round called landfills(垃圾填埋场).
A lot of this rubbish can be recycled, or turned back to something useful. The main things we recycle today are made of metal and paper.
People recycle for many reasons. One of the main reasons is to protect resources(资源). Making new cans out of old ones means less aluminum(铝) is needed for new cans.
This leads to a second reason people recycle: it saves energy. Recycling old aluminum cans take much less energy than making new aluminum. To make new aluminum, you need to mine metal ore(矿石) from the ground, remove it, and refine it, into a finished metal.
Recycling also protects valuable land. By recycling, we produce less rubbish. That means fewer landfills are needed for dropping our rubbish. Because metals are some what costly to make, they are the world's most recycled materials. About two-thirds of all steel(钢) is recycled.
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Almost all drink cans are made of aluminum. Americans recycle about one-third of their used aluminum cans. Empty cans are sent to special factories. There, they are cleaned, melted, and made into new pieces of aluminum.
Americans use lots of paper — mostly in the form of newspapers, magazines, and cardboard boxes. In fact, paper takes up more space in landfills than any other material.
Old paper can be cut and made into new paper. Americans recycle a little more than one-third of their paper rubbish. New papers are made from trees, each ton of recycled paper saves about 17 trees!
76. You can most probably read the passage in _______.
A. a science book B. a Chinese book C. a history book D. a geography book
77. Which material isn’t mentioned in the passage?
A. Paper B. Metal C. Wood D. Water
78. Why do people recycle rubbish?
A. To protect resources because it's hard to make new resources.
B. It can save energy, because the resources are limited(有限).
C. To protect valuable land, because there is no place to bury rubbish.
D. To protect resources, save energy and protect valuable land.
79. What does the underlined word “melted” in paragraph 6?
A. 切割 B. 烘干 C. 熔化 D. 分类
80. The main idea of the passage is _______.
A. To let us know it is a big job to deal with rubbish
B. To explain the reasons for rubbish recycle
C. To describe how to recycle metal and paper
D. To explain how to recycle rubbish and why to do so
C
For most of human history, people thought the world was flat(平的). That is, they thought that if you traveled far enough in one direction(方向), you would come to the edge of
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the world in the end. Then, about two thousand years ago, people started to come up with the idea that the earth was round. This meant that by traveling far enough in a straight line, you would finally come back to where you started.
It wasn't until the sixteenth century that Ferdinand Magellan's exploring team became the first to travel around the world. The exploring team first moved west from Portugal, around South America, across the Pacific, before returning around South Africa back to Portugal. Although Magellan died during the journey, one of his captains, Sebastian del Cano, made it all the way.
In 1872, the French science novel writer Jules Verne wrote a book called Around the World in 80 Days. The novel was about a man who traveled around the world, starting from London, to win a game.
In 1889, an American journalist, Nellie Bly, was sent by her newspaper to follow the journey taken by the characters(人物) in Verne's book. She traveled around the world, sending letters back to her newspaper about her journey. She finally arrived back home after her trip, taking 72 days, six hours, eleven minutes, and fourteen seconds to go around the world.
Even though traveling around the world these days is very easy, and can be done in one or two days by plane, people are still interested in breaking records(纪录). From 1970 to 1974, an American, Dave Kunst, was the first person to walk all the way around the world. He wore out twenty-one pairs of shoes on his trip! The first airplane flight around the world took place in 1924, done by Lt. Lowell H. Smith and five other Americans, and the first solo helicopter(直升机) flight around the world was done by an Australian explorer, Dick Smith, in 1982-83.
As for a nonstop balloon(气球) flight all the way around the world, this wasn't done until 2002, when Steve Fossett finally succeeded after many tries.
81. Who first said that the world was NOT flat?
A. Ferdinand Magellan. B. Nellie Bly.
C. Jules Verne. D. The passage doesn't say.
82. In the sixteenth century ________.
A. Ferdinand Magellan first tried to reach the world’s edge
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B. it took the first exploring team 80 days to come back to Portugal
C. a captain named Sebastian del Cano traveled around the world
D. the first exploring team had to pass through five countries during the journey
83. Which of these people did NOT go on a round-the-world journey?
A. Lowell H. Smith. B. Jules Verne.
C. Dick Smith. D. Steve Fossett.
84. From the passage we know that ________.
A. an exploring team had been to the edge of the world about 2000 years ago
B. today people can travel around the world in two days by plane if they want to
C. during the first airplane flight around the world only one American succeeded
D. since 1872 ten Americans have traveled around the world according to the passage
85. Which of the following is true according to the story?
A. Both Jules Verne and Nellie Bly wrote about traveling around the world.
B. About one hundred years ago, a Frenchman traveled around the world in 80 days.
C. It took Dave Kunst more than 5 years to travel around the world on foot.
D. In 2002 an Australian flew all the way around the world by ballooning.
第II卷（非选择题 共40分）
注意事项：
请考生用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应的位置，答案写在本试卷上无效。
VII. 选词填空（10分）
A. 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的单词填空 (每词限用一次)。
and its museum fun with
Are you planning a family trip? Do you want to go somewhere special? Then welcome to Teddy Bear Museum. It’s a (86)_______ place for both the young and old. There are lots of teddy bears in the (87)_______. They are in different clothes made by hand. They are doing different things like singing (88)_______ dancing. All look nice and cute. Some are as tall as 2 meters. Others are as small as a strawberry. Some can even talk and play
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games(89)________ people. The brown bears are the most popular because people say (90)________ color is like that of chocolate. The staff here all dress up as teddy bears. I’m sure you’ll spend a great day here.
B. 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的动词，并用其适当形式填空。有的需要加助动词或不定式符号(每词限用一次)。
fight happen kill rise study
Many earthquakes begin under the sea. Earthquakes may happen anywhere on the earth. They often happen near the mountains. During the last earthquake, the shakings made rocks (91)______ suddenly and even crack open. Houses fell, people (92)______ or hurt, and the whole villages and cities were destroyed. Can we do something to keep ourselves safe from earthquakes? Scientists (93)______ earthquakes and made maps that show the "earthquake belts(带)". In these areas we should build strong houses (94)______ against earthquakes. In the future, scientists will be able to tell when and where an earthquake (95)______. They can also tell people what to do and how to do it.
VIII. 改写句子 按括号中的要求完成句子，每个空格填一个单词。（5分）
96. The little baby gets dressed at seven. (改为否定句)
The little baby _________ ________ dressed at seven.
97. Sydney is thousands of kilometers away from Jinan. (就划线部分提问)
___________ __________ is Sydney away from Jinan?
98. “Do you ride your bike to school?” My cousin asked me. (改写句子，句意不变)
My cousin asked me __________ I __________ my bike to school.
99. It was uncomfortable for me to get on with these people. (改写句子，句意不变)
I __________ _________ a fish out of water among these people.
100. The students solve lots of problems to help themselves grow up.(改写句子, 句意不变)
Lots of problems __________ ___________ by the students to help themselves grow up.
IX. 完成句子 根据汉语意思完成英语句子，每个空格填一个单词。（5分）
101. 我必须思考如何回答这个问题。
I must __________ ________ how to answer this question.
102. 由于疾病和低出生率，熊猫处于极大的危险之中。
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Pandas ________ ________great danger because of illness and low birth-rate.
103. 许多年轻人到那儿购物，或只是闲逛。
Many young people go there to shop or just ________ _________.
104. 虽然美国政府决定阻止本国公司向中兴通讯出售芯片，但它却坚定了我们研发自主芯片
的决心。
Although the American government has decided to prevent their local companies from selling
chips to ZTE, it confirms our determination to _________ and develop __________ ones.
105. 建设济南新旧动能转换先行区，中央商务区和国际医学科学中心是重点。
To build Jinan Prior Zone For Replacing Old Growth Drivers With New Ones, the ________
Business District and the ___________ Center For Medical Sciences are the key points.
X. 阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(5分)
“How are you?” is a nice question. It’s a friendly greeting that people in the United States use. 106._________ It’s a question that often doesn’t need an answer. The person who asks, “How are you?” expects to hear the answer “Fine,” even if the person isn’t fine. The reason is that “How are you?” isn’t really a question and “Fine” isn’t really an answer. They are common ways of saying “hello” or “hi”.
107._________ For example, when someone asks “Do you agree?”, the other person may be thinking, “No, I don’t. I think you’re wrong.” It isn’t polite to disagree very strongly, so he might say, “I am not so sure.” 108.__________
People also don’t say exactly what they are thinking when they finish talking to other people. For example, many conversations over the phone end when one person says, “I’ve got to go now,” or the person who wants to hang up gives an excuse such as “Someone is at the door,” or, “Something is burning on the stove.” 109._________ The person who wants to hang up simply doesn’t want to talk any more, but it isn’t polite to say so. An excuse is polite, and it doesn’t hurt the other person’s feelings.
Whether they are greeting each other, talking about an opinion, or ending a conversation, people often don’t say exactly what they are thinking. 110.__________.
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A. This is a nicer way to say that you don’t agree with someone.
B. You’d better not to tell the truth to your family.
C. However, “How are you?” is also an unusual question.
D. The excuse may be real, or not.
E. Sometimes, people don’t say exactly what they mean.
F. If you disagree with others, they will hate you.
G. This is one way of being nice to people, and it’s a part of the game of language.
106. _________ 107. _________ 108. _________ 109. _________ 110. _________
XI. 书面表达（15分）
学校英语俱乐部准备举办一场主题为“困难与梦想”的征文活动，请你根据提示，写一篇100词左右的英语短文。
内容包括：
1. 你的梦想是什么？
2. 你遇到的某个（些）困难，以及你是如何坚持梦想，克服困难的？
3. 陈述你的观点。
要求：
1. 所写内容应包括所提供的信息，可适当发挥。
2. 不得出现真实的人名、校名、地名等相关信息。
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九年级英语试题二参考答案
第一卷：选择题，共110分
I.听力测试（每题1.5分共30分）
1-5 CABBB 6-10 BBABC 11-15 BACAB 16-20 CBABC
II.拼读选词（5分）
21-25 BADCD
III.选择填空（每题1分，共30分）
26-30 BBBDB 31-35 ACBBC 36-40 DACDA 41-45 BCBAA 46-50 BCBBC 51-55 CBCCC
IV. 完形填空（每题1分，共10分）
56-60 CDABB 61-65 ACBDC
V 补全对话（每题1分，共5分）
66-70 DACDA
VI 阅读理解（每题 2分，共30分）
71-75 CDCAA 76-80 ADDCB 81-85 DCBBA
第二卷：非选择题，共40分
VII.用所给词的适当形式填空（每题1分共10分）
A 篇 86. fun 87. museum 88. and 89. with 90. its
B 篇 91. rise 92. were killed 93. have studied 94. to fight 95. will happen
VIII. 改写句子（每题 1分共5 分）
96. doesn’t get 97. How far 98. if/whether rode 99. felt like 100. are solved
IX. 完成句子 （每题1分共5分）
101. think about 102. are in 103. hang out 104. research/study independent 105. Central International
X．阅读理解七选五（每空1分，共5分）
106-110 CEADG
XI.作文（15分）
I) 本大题共15分。
2) 卷面书写潦草不工整，影响理解，可酌情从总得分中扣1分。
3) 拼写错误每两个扣0.5分。同样错误不重复计算。
4) 书面表达可分为五个等级:
(1)13-15分: 短文内容符合情景，能运用丰富的词汇、短语、句式正确表达个人观点。语句流
畅，书写工整，语法错误少(1-2处)，字数符合要求。
(2)10-12 分: 短文内容基本符合图画情景，能基本正确表达个人观点。语句通顺，语言较丰富，
书写工整，语法错误较少(3-4处)，字数基本符合要求。
(3)7-9分: 短文内容基本符合图画情景，能基本正确表达个人观点。语句尚通顺，书写较工整，
语法错误较多，字数在80词左右。
(4)4-6 分: 短文内容不能紧扣图画情景，不能正确表达个人观点。语句不够通顺，语法错误多，
书写一般，字数在 60 词以下。
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(5)3 分以下: 短文内容不能紧扣图画情景，不能表达个人观点，词不达意，影响理解。
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