英语试题
本试卷分第 I 卷（选择题）和第 II 卷（非选择题）。第 I 卷 1 至 8 页，第 II 卷 9 至 10 页。
第Ⅰ卷
注意事项：
1．答第 I 卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡
皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。不能答在本试卷上，否则无效。
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳
选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和
阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What time will the man be arriving?
A. At 6:20. B. At 7:00. C. At 7:20.
2. How is the weather now?
A. Windy. B. Sunny. C. Rainy.
3. What do we know about Alice’s laptop?
A. It’s broken. B. It’s very slow. C. It works very well.
4. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In an office. B. At a laundry. C. At a clothing store.
5. What are the speakers talking about?
A. How to lose weight.
B. Where to have dinner.
C. What the man is eating.
第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选
项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小
题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6、7 题。
6. How far can the woman run in an hour on the running machine?
A. About five kilometers.
B. About eight kilometers.
C. About ten kilometers.
7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Co-workers.
B. Coach and athlete.C. Club worker and customer.
听第 7 段材料，回答第 8、9 题。
8. How many people will have dinner together in the room?
A. 12. B. 14. C. 16.
9. Why did the woman get to the restaurant early?
A. To order food first.
B. To wait for a table.
C. To arrange the room.
听第 8 段材料，回答第 10 至 12 题。
10. Where did Linda have dinner last night?
A. In a hotel.
B. In a local restaurant.
C. In her friend’s house.
11. What did Linda do last night for the first time?
A. She ate real Chinese food.
B. She learned how to use chopsticks.
C. She experienced American dining culture.
12. What did Linda think of the tradition of food sharing?
A. She couldn’t stand it.
B. She really appreciated it.
C. She thought it was strange.
听第 9 段材料，回答第 13 至 16 题。
13. Who is the woman probably talking to?
A. A friend. B. A stranger. C. A tour guide.
14. What time does Line 6 stop running every night?
A. At 10:30. B. At 10:45. C. At 11:45.
15. How will the woman go to the M Hotel?
A. By taxi. B. On foot. C. By subway.
16. When is the conversation probably taking place?
A. On Saturday. B. On Thursday. C. On Tuesday.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. What is the top news story?
A. An animal was missing.
B. There is a thief at the zoo.
C. The school year changes.
18. Who is Lacy?
A. A school director. B. A zookeeper. C. A monkey.
19. How does the speaker describe Lacy?
A. She is crazy.B. She is dangerous.
C. She is probably scared.
20. When did the school year finish before?
A. In early June. B. In mid-June. C. In late June.
第二部分: 阅读理解（共两节, 满分 35 分）
第一节(共 10 小题; 每小题 2.5 分, 满分 25 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上
将该项涂黑。
A
According to a recent report, about 15% of the people in the UK are members of
gyms. But are they more likely to be fit?
A study found that gym members were 14 times more active than people who didn’t
belong to any health club. Gym members did six hours more exercise a week, and this
activity did make them fitter than non-gym members. They also spent less time sitting
down every day than non-gym members. The results were the same for men and women.
The study included 405 people between the ages of 30 and 64, and the main
characteristics of those who were gym members were the same as those who were not.
“But gym members did more training than non-gym members,” said the lead author,
Elizabeth Schroeder of the University of Illinois.
While it might seem clear that gym members exercising more are healthier than
non-members, Schroeder says this has not been directly shown before. However, the
study is only designed to show a tie between gym membership and more exercise. It
may be that active people like to join gyms. In the study, people who exercised as
much as gym members were also in good health.
You can get the same benefits wherever you exercise. This study shows a gym
membership can make you do more exercise, but other research shows that exercising
outside has other help. Outdoor activities can make you feel happy about
life—especially if you run through a forest.
Outdoor exercise is also more enjoyable than going to the gym. The first five
minutes of outdoor exercise is especially helpful in making people feel good. But
Schroeder says that a gym may also encourage greater exercise because it can be social
and fun.
21. What did the new study find out?
A. Gym members had healthier eating habits.
B. There were fewer women gym members than men.
C. Gym members did at least eight hours of exercise a week.
D. Gym members were more active than non-gym members.
22. In the study, researchers studied ____________________. A. some sports lovers
B. 405 gym members
C. people from different age groups
D. 30 gym members and 64 non-gym members
23. Which of the following will Elizabeth Schroeder agree with?
A. Women should do more gym exercise.
B. We should be careful with outdoor training.
C. Outdoor exercise is better than gym exercise.
D. It is easier to keep exercising if you go to the gym.
B
Of all my dreams, my least favorite is the one where I’m in a car. It always
begins with me driving, but eventually I realize that for some reason I’m sitting
in the back seat. I can’t keep the car under control, rushing toward the roadside
until, screaming, I wake up.
This is like the passenger experience in Waymo’s self-driving cars. You sit
in the back seat of a vehicle and watch as the wheel turns itself above an entirely
empty driving seat.
“We made you live your nightmare,” a Waymo staff member joked after I exited
one of the company’s fully self-driving car, following a quick drive inside its
secret testing site. Waymo, a self-driving car company, arranged these rides for
40 journalists at this site.
There were also some demonstrations(演示). We watched as a Waymo car was cut
off by a speeding vehicle. Then the employees created a situation in which a pile
of moving boxes fell into the street just as another car passed in the opposite
direction. Throughout the day, the cars performed impressively, driving with the
level of care you might take if you had a wedding cake in the back seat.
During these demonstrations, Waymo gave information about what it was planning
to do with these vehicles. The company has laid out four ways that its technology
could be made available to the public. But Waymo’s CEO, John Krafcik, wouldn’t
show which of these was likely to come to market first, or on what kind of timeline.
I can’t help but admire that Waymo is succeeding in developing this technology.
There are countless possibilities at play on the road. The task of programming
software to react to all those situations is unimaginably complex. What a great
breakthrough!
24. How did the author feel about her self-driving experience in her dream?
A. It was puzzling. B. It was terrifying.
C. It was amusing. D. It was inspiring.
25. The author is probably _______________.
A. a newspaper reporter B. a professional driver C. a software developer D. a Waymo staff member
26. What did the author intend to prove by mentioning the wedding cake in paragraph
4?
A. The employees performed well.
B. The self-driving cars worked well.
C. The self-driving cars ran at the same speed.
D. People could depend on the cars in emergencies.
27. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The self-driving car will come to market soon.
B. The programming software needs to be improved.
C. The technology will make a difference to people’s life.
D. The company still has no plan to put the technology into practice.
C
Next week, strangers with a truck will take away everything we own, except the
clothes on our backs, the car we will drive, and as much stuff as we can pack into
it. It’s called moving. Some people do it often. For others, like me, it’s a rare
experience. In all my adult years, I’ve moved only three times.
My first husband and I moved into our first house with a bed, our clothes and
a few gifts. That was a lifetime ago. Over the years, I filled that house with three
children, a few dogs and enough stuff to reach the ceiling.
When the kids grew up, I lost my husband to cancer, and I began to learn about
letting go. First, I let go of the idea of being in control. Life isn’t about being
in charge of what happens; it’s about being in charge of what we do with it. Next,
I let go of putting off the things I care most about, like keeping in touch with
the people that mean the most to me. I let go of the people whose lives are about
anger or hatred, and tried instead to surround myself with those who shine with
kindness. Finally, I let go of being alone---I remarried. I eventually moved to a
new city with my new husband, and after that move, I promised I’d stop collecting
meaningless things. But 12 years later, here I am, still learning about letting go.
Yesterday, while cleaning out a dresser, I found a box filled with old keepsakes.
Nothing in that box may mean much to anyone, except me. They are treasures for me
because of the memories they preserve. We finally decided to keep them, hold them
close and never let them go. We’ll all move someday from this world to the next,
but we won’t need a truck to do it. We’ll take nothing with us and leave behind
a memory of the life we lived, the mistakes we made, and all the love and kindness
we tried to show. That memory might not be a treasure, but if we’re lucky, someone
will keep it and hold it close and never let it go.
28. According to paragraph 3, which of the following might the author advise?
A. Never let all the memories go as they are.B. Put off the things that mean the most to you.
C. Wherever you go, you should be kind to others.
D. Life is 10% what happens to you and 90% how you deal with it.
29. The underlined word “keepsakes” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning
to_________.
A. something memorable B. something expensive
C. something unpleasant D. something beautiful
30. What is the author’s main purpose in writing the article?
A. To stress the importance of letting the past go.
B. To give advice on how to make choices before moving.
C. To share how she learned to make important choices in life.
D. To explain how our memories can pass on to later generations.
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余
选项。
How to clean your dirty laptop
You know your laptop is dirty. But when’s the last time you cleaned it? 31
The keys are clean, the screen is free of smudges(污迹) and you fall in love with
that three-year-old laptop all over again.
Gather your supplies
“You don’t need much to clean a computer,” said Jolie Kerr, a cleaning expert.
“I use exactly four things to keep my laptop clean: Rubbing alcohol, microfiber
cloths, cotton swabs(棉签) and canned air.” 32 They’ll work
fine, but they’re probably overpriced compared with what you have at home.
Start with the inside
33 If there are visible dust bunnies in the vents, you’ve let
it go far too long without a cleaning. In that case, you may want to open it up or
take it to a repair shop for an in-depth cleaning.
Wipe down the outside
34 “ The most critical thing when cleaning a laptop or desktop
computer is to apply the cleaning product to the tool you’re using to clean, never
ever directly onto the computer,” Ms. Kerr said.
Get rid of bad smell
Let’s say you have a particularly terrible case of dirty laptop, and even after
the above steps, your laptop still carries the bad smells. Getting rid of those is
a challenge. 35 For that, you can turn to the world’s best natural
deodorizer(除臭剂): Charcoal.A. Next comes the fun part: Making that laptop shine again.
B. Then, take your computer apart and check it carefully.
C. Don’t bother with specialty cleaners you see at electronics stores.
D. Once you’ve gathered your tools, it’s time to start cleaning the inside.
E. They also make nice add-on gifts for those in need of a new computer.
F. Cleaning the surface can help, but a lot of those smells may also be inside.
G. Using a freshly cleaned laptop is almost as satisfying as getting a new one.
第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分 45 分）
第一节：完形填空（共 20 小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 30 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答
题卡上将该项涂黑。
I live in an apartment building in a planned community, including private roads.
I have lived in this 36 of mostly professionals and retirees for over three years,
but I had met only a few of my 37 .
After the 38 had stopped falling, we were left to 39 ourselves because
the city and state services didn’t work. I went out to the parking lot to dig out
my and my girlfriend’s 40 . I took a large metal piece of my desk to 41 as
a shovel. After about 30 minutes of digging, some of the neighbors 42 with snow
shovels and told me if I helped them, they would 43 me. I agreed and we dug out
each other’s cars. The streets were 44 due to a state of emergency declared
by the governor, so we had 45 to go.
As I said, I only know my 46 neighbor, one who is elderly. But we all (we
were 10 guys, all together, in the beginning) put our heads together and figured
out who was too 47 or too ill to dig themselves 48 and went about, as a team,
helping them. 49 the day went on, more and more people 50 us, men and women.
We became an army of snow 51 . Our only motivation was concern for the people
who were 52 and our growing friendship.
Everyone was concerned for each other. Someone asked me if I had enough 53
to get by. It was typical of the spirit of the day. I 54 a lot of friends that
day and we were planning a party to be held at the club house in spring.
Kindness and 55 for others has countless rewards!
36. A. hometown B. city C. community D. country
37. A. friends B. neighbors C. workmates D. classmates
38. A. snow B. rain C. wind D. dust
39. A. know about B. communicate with C. look for D. care for
40. A. wheelchairs B. bicycles C. cars D. coaches 41. A. mend B. buy C. treat D. use
42. A. kept out B. came out C. broke out D. took out
43. A. miss B. offer C. help D. provide
44. A. kept B. locked C. trapped D. closed
45. A. nowhere B. somewhere C. anywhere D. everywhere
46. A. strange B. humorous C. immediate D. clever
47. A. young B. old C. unhealthy D. unconfident
48. A. out B. up C. in D. down
49. A. Because B. As C. While D. Although
50. A. fell B. saw C. greeted D. joined
51. A. diggers B. supporters C. players D. helpers
52. A. beat B. stuck C. pressed D. struck
53. A. meat B. drink C. water D. food
54. A. trusted B. met C. made D. visited
55. A. concern B. confidence C. happiness D. honesty
第Ⅱ卷
注意：将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分 45 分）
第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1 个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
A new study has found that graduate students are six times more likely to show
depression symptoms 56 the general population. Researchers led by Evans, a
scientist, surveyed 2,279 students in 26 different 57 (country).
Approximately 40% of the surveyed graduates scored middle 58 severe for anxiety.
Nearly 40 percent of the surveyed graduates also showed signs of middle to severe
depression. It’s not hard 59 (understand) why life as a master student can
drive some people crazy. Long hours in researching, social loneliness and feelings
of not being respected 60 (complete) can break even the most motivated persons
among us. When this situation persists, the anxiety and depression can become part
of their life. The relationship 61 their teachers is another aspect 62
can deeply influence a graduate student’s mental health. Among the graduates with
anxiety or depression, only half agreed that their professional teachers 63
(provide) real help. These unbelievable high rates of anxiety and depression, when
64 (compare) to the general population, are alarming and should serve as 65
wakeup call for the academic world, expert Evans says.
第四部分：写作 (共两节，满分 40 分)
第一节：应用文写作(满分 15 分)
假如你是李华，今年双十一你网购了一件物品，但是没有按时收到，而且物品有质量问
题。于是你决定向店家的客服(Customer Service)写信投诉。内容包括：
1.投诉的内容；
2.对你造成的影响；
3.索赔要求。
注意：
1.词数 80 左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
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第二节：读后续写（满分 25 分）
阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。
Ariana caught another whiff(难闻的味道) and tried to hold her breath. She moved
away slightly, but Ashley only moved closer and continued talking. Ariana felt
trapped. She wanted badly to tell Ashley that she didn’t smell very good. But how
could she do that without hurting her feelings? Instead, she gathered the remains
of her lunch to throw in the trash, thankful for the excuse to get some fresh air.
She looked back to see Ashley eating quietly. Ashley’s hair was tangled(乱糟糟的)
, and her clothes were dirty. Ariana forced herself to go back to the table and take
her seat, vowing(发誓) that she would not sit with Ashley tomorrow.
When Ariana got home from school, she complained to her mother, “There’s a
girl named Ashley who likes to sit next to me in school, but she smells bad.”
“She’s probably having a tough day,” said her mother.
“No, it’s not just one day. She smells bad a lot,” Ariana explained. “Nobody
else likes to sit next to her, either.”
“I don’t think you understand Ashley’s situation, so let me ask you this...,”
Her mother’s tone was serious. “Who makes sure that your hair is combed every
morning so you’ll look nice when you go to school?”
“You do,” answered Ariana.
“Who makes sure you’re bathed and cleaned every day? And your clothes are
washed and neatly ironed?”
“You and Daddy,” Ariana said again.
“Do you live in a nice home? Do you have enough to eat?”
Ariana nodded, beginning to feel guilty. She was starting to understand now.
Ashley couldn’t help her situation because she was only seven years old—the same
age as Ariana. Grown-ups are supposed to take care of kids.
“Why doesn’t her family take better care of her?” Ariana asked.
“Not all children live in the best situation,” her mother said. “The best
thing you can do for Ashley is to treat her with kindness and sympathy.”
注意：1. 所续写短文的词数应为 150 左右；
2. 应使用 5 个以上短文中标有下划线的关键词语；
3. 续写部分分为两段，每段的开头语已为你写好；
4. 续写完成后，请用下划线标出你所使用的关键词语。
Paragraph 1:
Ariana bit her bottom lip. Sadness for Ashley filled her heart.
Paragraph 2:
At the end of the school year, the second grade prepared to go on a field trip
to the zoo.
英语参考答案 2019.01
一、听力（共 20 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分）
1—5 CABCC 6—10 BCBAB 11—15 ABBAC 16—20 AACCB
二、阅读理解（共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节（共 10 小题; 每小题 2.5 分, 满分 25 分）
21—23 DCD 24—27 BABC 28—30 DAC
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
31—35 GCDAF
三、语言运用（共两节，满分 45 分）
第一节：完形填空（共 20 小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 30 分）
36—40 CBADC 41—45 DBCDA 46—50 CBABD 51—55 ABDCA
第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
56. than 57. countries 58. to 59. to understand 60.
completely
61. with 62. that/which 63. provided 64. compared 65. a
四、写作 (共两节，满分 40 分)
第一节：应用文写作(满分 15 分)
Possible version:
Dear Customer Service,
I’m writing to make some complaints about the computer I bought in your store.
Much to my regret, the computer I ordered from your store on November 11 finally
arrived last Sunday, ten days later than expected. Besides, the computer can’t be
properly shut down. Obviously, you didn’t carefully examine it before you sold it.
I sincerely hope that you will replace this computer as soon as possible. If
this is not possible, I will have no choice but to insist on a full refund.
Yours truly,
Li Hua
内容要点
1.投诉的内容；
2.对你造成的影响；
3.索赔要求。
应用文评分原则:
1．上文仅为参考范文，学生可用不同的语言表达形式来表述要点。
2．本题总分为 15 分，按以下 5 个档次给分。评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其
所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
第一档：（1—3 分）只能写出一两个要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子正确；
第二档：（4—6 分）能写出部分要点；语言错误多，影响意思表达；
第三档：（7—9 分）能写明基本要点；语言虽有较多错误，但能基本达意；
第四档：（10—12 分）能写明全部或绝大部分要点；语言有少量错误；行文不够连贯，表
达基本清楚；
第五档：（13—15 分）能写明全部要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚。
3．词数少于 60 和多于 100 的，从总分中减去 2 分;格式不正确的，从总分中减去 1 分。
4．评分时，应注意的主要内容为：时态、人称、内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和
准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。6．如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
第二节：读后续写（满分 25 分）
One possible version:
Paragraph 1:
Ariana bit her bottom lip. Sadness for Ashley filled her heart. She vowed that
from now on she would be the best friend that she could be to Ashley. At school,
Ariana voluntarily sat next to Ashley. She willingly partnered with Ashley to help
with her schoolwork. She teamed with Ashley to play games happily. On the day that
Ashley smelled too bad, she moved away a little or politely asked Ashley for a little
room. She was always careful not to hurt Ashley’s feelings.
Paragraph 2:
At the end of the school year, the second grade prepared to go on a field trip
to the zoo. The day before the trip, the teacher announced that the class needed
to bring a lunch from home. Ashley was absent, and Ariana worried that her friend
would not have a lunch because Ashley always ate the school lunches. So, the next
day, Ariana asked her mom to make an extra lunch for Ashley---just in case. She was
right. When Ariana gave the lunch to Ashley, tears welled up in Ashley’s eyes, and
she thanked Ariana for her kindness and consideration.
评分原则:
1．上文仅为参考范文，学生可用不同的语言表达形式来表述要点。
2．本题总分为 25 分，按以下 5 个档次给分。评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其
所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
第一档：（1—5 分） 与段落开头衔接较差，产出内容太少，很少使用短文中标出的关键词
语，全文内容不连贯；
第二档：（6—10 分）与所给短文有一定的关系，与段落开头有一定程度的衔接，写出了一
些有关内容，应用了 3 个以上短文中标出的关键词语，较少使用语句间连接成分，
全文内容缺少连贯性；
第三档：（11—15 分）与所给短文关系较为密切，与段落开头有一定程度的衔接，写出了
若干有关内容，应用了 4 个以上短文中标出的关键词语，应用简单的语句间连接
成分，使全文内容连贯；
第四档：（16—20 分）与所给短文融洽度较高，与段落开头衔接较为合理，内容比较丰富，
应用了 5 个以上短文中标出的关键词语，比较有效地使用了语句间连接成分，使
所续写短文结构紧凑；
第五档：（21—25 分）与所给短文融洽度高，与段落开头衔接合理，内容丰富，应用了 5
个以上短文中标出的关键词语，有效地使用了语句间连接成分，使所续写短文结
构紧凑。
3．词数少于 130 的，从总分中减去 2 分。
4．评分时，应注意的主要内容为：与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；内容的丰富性和
对所标出关键词语的应用情况；应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；上下文的连贯
性。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6．如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
7．如果文章中所用关键词没有下划线，从总分中扣除 2 分。
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