2020年秋高三英语开学摸底考试卷05(含试卷版+解析版+听力MP3)3份打包
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‎2020年秋季高三英语开学摸底考试 试卷五(含听力MP3)‎ 原卷版 注意事项:‎ ‎1. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。‎ ‎2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。‎ ‎3. 考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。‎ 第一部分 听力理解(共两节,满分30分)‎ 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1.When was the woman born?‎ A.In1997. B.In1998. C.In1999.‎ ‎2.Where is the woman going tonight?‎ A. To a cinema. B. To her company. C. To a restaurant.‎ ‎3 .Where does the conversation take place?‎ A. At a hotel. B. At a store. C. At home.‎ 4. How does the woman's sister go to university?‎ A. By bus B. By underground C. On foot.‎ 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about?‎ A. A trip. B. Some animals. C. Farmers.‎ 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。‎ 6. When did the woman begin working with the man?‎ ‎ 13 / 13‎ A. A few weeks ago. B. A few months ago. C. Two years ago.‎ 7. How does the woman describe the manager?‎ A. He is serious. B. He is experienced. C.He is nice.‎ 听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。‎ 8. What is the relationship between the woman and Gwen?‎ A. Teacher and student.‎ B. Workmates.‎ C. Old schoolmates.‎ 9. How did Gwen help the woman?‎ A. By showing her communication skills.‎ B. By introducing some friends to her.‎ C. By teaching her math.‎ 听第8段材料,回善第10至12题。‎ 10. What is the man doing now?‎ A. Repairing his keyboard.‎ B. Answering an e-mail.‎ C. Checking his appointment.‎ 11. What is the man going to give the woman?‎ A. A birthday cake.‎ B. A Flowered dress.‎ C. An e-mail birthday card.‎ ‎12 .What did the speakers use to do together?‎ A. Ride motorbikes.‎ B. Go on the Internet.‎ C. Climb the mountains.‎ 听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。‎ 13. Why did the man say Debra was a hero?‎ A. She was alone at sea for 113 days.‎ B. She fought with a big frightening whale.‎ ‎ 13 / 13‎ A. She won the championship in a boating match.‎ 13. Why did Andrew leave after two weeks?‎ A. He was badly ill.‎ B. He was afraid of the sea.‎ C. He missed fresh food.‎ 14. What was the main danger at sea for Debra?‎ A .Whales. B. Large ships. C. Bad weather.‎ 16. What did Debra miss most at sea?‎ A. Food. B. Red wine. C. People.‎ 听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。‎ 17. What is the talk mainly about?‎ A. English people's good manners.‎ B.The speaker's experience in London.‎ C. Differences between Americans and English people.‎ 18. What do people think of Americans according to the speaker?‎ A. Self-centered. B. Nice. C Humorous.‎ 19. What did the speaker like to do in the afternoon in England?‎ A. Have afternoon tea.‎ B. Watch comedy shows.‎ C. Visit old buildings.‎ ‎20.What does the speaker want to do?‎ A. Go back to Australia.‎ B.Visit England once more.‎ C. Make more British friends.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)‎ 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)‎ 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。‎ A Welcome to MGS.‎ ‎ 13 / 13‎ ‎    Let's go study abroad ‎    MGSMGS in Australia:‎ ‎    Australia is a wonderful educational destination and it is a highly developed country. Australia is a very beautiful country surrounded by the Indian and Pacific oceans. It is also a very famous international educational destination for students from all over the world. MGS provides you with the opportunity to study at Bond University English Language Institute (BUELI) in Queensland, Gold Coast Australia.‎ ‎    Bond's English Language Institute is centrally located at the heart of Bond's beautiful university campus with of all the facilities (设施) that are accessible to  all students. BUELI is a member of the English Australia (EA) group of colleges and offers English language programs ranging from everyday usage to academic and business English. These programs can qualify you to study full degree programs at Bond University and significantly promote yourself.‎ ‎    • English for Academic Purposes (EAP)‎ ‎    • General English (GE)‎ ‎    • Business English (BE)‎ ‎    • Cambridge FCE (First Certificate in English)‎ ‎    • International English Language Testing ‎    • System (IELTS) Preparation ‎    Upon successfully completing English language learning, students can join hundreds of courses offered at Bond University.‎ ‎    While studying at BUELI, you will make use of all kinds of Bond's academic and sporting facilities. You'll also enjoy all the fun of organized social activities, with plenty of time for sightseeing and traveling. BUELI gives you the chance to enjoy the relaxed Australian lifestyle while learning to speak English like the locals. Studying overseas is an experience of a lifetime—meeting new friends; discovering what it is like to live in a different country; coming to understand a new culture; mixing with students from all over the world.‎ ‎21.The purpose of writing this passage is ________.‎ A. give tips on applying for BUELI B. introduce education system in Australia C. tell the readers the importance of overseas study D. attract students to study in BUELI ‎ 13 / 13‎ ‎22.After completing English language learning at BUELI, students are allowed to________.‎ A. stay forever in Australia B. work independently in Australia C. study for a degree in this university D. find a good job with a high salary ‎23.While studying at BUELI, students have the opportunity of ________.‎ A. discovering their hidden abilities B. learning to be more relaxed in life C. understanding the local people better D. contacting students from other cultures B ‎    Once upon a time, a man was walking on a mountain when he found an incredible cave with all kinds of treasure inside it. So he gave up his job, his home, and his friends, and spent all his time guarding the cave.‎ ‎     He was so dedicated to it that he hardly ate or drank, and before long he fell ill. One day, when he could hardly move at all, he decided to share the treasure.‎ ‎     He crawled into the cave to get a handful of jewels, but discovered, to his horror, that it was empty except for a small emerald (绿宝石). The man took it and gave it to the first person to come by, a woman.‎ ‎     Then an old man came by. "What bad luck!" the man said. "Just a moment ago I gave a woman the last of the treasure I was guarding."‎ ‎     "Are you sure there is nothing left?" the old man asked.‎ ‎     The man took him into the cave, where they found a chest with jewels and some bags of gold. The man was shocked, and the old man explained to him, "At last! At last! At last someone has broken the spell of this cave. This is the Cave of Treasure, and you're the first to have passed its great test. Many have dedicated their lives to this cave, only to end up realizing there was nothing here …"‎ ‎      "And why does this happen?" the man asked.‎ ‎      "This magic cave has only as many riches as your own heart. When someone discovers it, the cave fills with the treasure they bring with them, but later, when they have devoted themselves to guarding the treasure, their hearts become empty, as does the cave. The only way to fill it is by filling your heart with all that is good, as you did by giving the woman that last jewel."‎ ‎ 13 / 13‎ ‎      From that day on, the man understood that it was better to share than to keep. Thanks to the cave and the old man, he became noble and generous.‎ ‎24.Why did the man give up his job, home and friends?‎ A. Because he possessed a variety of treasure.‎ B. Because he devoted himself to a great test.‎ C. Because he had to guard the treasure cave.‎ D. Because he wanted to find the treasure cave.‎ ‎25.What did the man find when he showed his cave to the old man?‎ A. All kinds of treasure. B. A chest with jewels and gold.‎ C. A small emerald. D. A handful of jewels.‎ ‎26.What do we learn about the people who dedicated their lives to the cave before?‎ A. They all found the cave empty at last.‎ B. The old man freed them from its spell.‎ C. They all filled the cave with the treasure they had.‎ D. They thought it was better to share than to enjoy the treasure alone.‎ ‎27.What can we learn from the text?‎ A. Different people have different views.‎ B. Treasure only belongs to those who possess it.‎ C. Some people never learn what is really valuable.‎ D. Purely material things cannot make us truly wealthy.‎ C In 1971 a young man who grew up very poor was travelling across the country, trying to make a new start for himself.Along the way he had completely run out of(用光) money and was forced to spend the night in his car.This continued until one morning, after a week of sleeping in his car, he walked nervously into a restaurant and ordered a big breakfast. ‎ After eating his first good meal in weeks, he found himself lying to the waiter, telling him he had lost his wallet.The waiter, who was also the owner, walked behind the chair where the young man had been sitting.He bent down, and came up with a $20 bill that looked as if it had fallen on the floor and said, “Son, you must have dropped this,” the owner said.The young man couldn’t believe his luck! He quickly paid for the breakfast, left a tip, bought ‎ ‎ 13 / 13‎ gas with the change, and headed West. ‎ On the way out of town, he began to understand what the owner did.Maybe nobody dropped the money at all.“Maybe that fellow just knew I was in trouble and he helped me in a way that didn’t embarrass(使尴尬)me.So I just made a promise to help other people if I can.” ‎ Later, he worked very hard and became a rich man.Now he lives near Kansas City.Each year he gives away thousands of dollars.He is known as the “Secret Santa” because at Christmas time each year, he personally hands money out to those on the street and at restaurants.Last year, he gave more than $50,000 away in Kansas City.‎ ‎28.The young man was travelling cross the country in 1971 to______.‎ A. look for a good restaurant B. improve his life C. show his new car to others D. hand out dollars ‎29.The underlined sentence implies(暗示) that the young man got to know that______.‎ A. it was vey lucky of him to get his lost money back B. it was very honest of the owner to return his money C. the owner helped him in a way that didn’t hurt his feelings D. another person who had breakfast in the restaurant lost the money ‎30.From the end of the passage we can learn that ______.‎ A. the man did carry out his promise B. the man was not successful in the end C. the owner was paid back the money D. Santa gives the man money each year ‎31.The message of the story is “______”.‎ A. One good turn deserves another B. Where there is a will there is a way C. He who travels far knows much D. Give love wings (翅膀) and it may fly higher D The rapid growth of cities worldwide over the next two decades will cause significant risks to people and the global environment, according to analysis.‎ Researches from Yale and Stanford predict that by 2030 urban areas will expand by 590,000 square ‎ 13 / 13‎ ‎ miles—nearly the size of Mongolia—to meet the needs of 1.47 billion more people living in urban areas.‎ ‎“It is likely that these cities are going to be developed in places that are the most biologically diverse,” said Karen Seto, a famous scientist at Yale University. “They are going to be growing and expanding into forests, biological hotspots, savannas(热带稀缺大草原), coastlines—sensitive and vulnerable places.”‎ Urban areas, they found, have been expanding more rapidly along coasts. “Of all the places for cities to grow, coasts are the most sensitive. People and buildings along the coast are at risk of flooding and other environmental disasters,” said Seto.‎ The study provides the first estimate of how fast urban areas globally are growing and how fast they may grow in the future. “We know a lot about global patterns of urban population growth, but we know significantly less about how urban areas are changing,” she said. “Changes in land cover associated with urbanization lead to many environmental changes, from habitats loss and agricultural land conversion(转化) to changes in local and regional climate.”‎ The researchers examined studies that used satellite data to map urban growth and found that from 1970 to 2000 the world’s urban footprint had grown by at least 22,400 square miles—half the size of Ohio.‎ ‎“This number is numerous, but, in actuality, urban land expansion has been far greater than what our analysis shows because we only looked at the published studies that used satellite data,” said Seto. “We found that 48 of the most populated urban areas have been studied using satellite data, with findings in journals. This means that we’re not tracking the physical expansion of more than half of the world’s largest cities.”‎ Half of urban land expansion in China is driven by a rising middle class, whereas the size of cities in India and Africa is driven primarily by population growth. “Rising incomes translate into rising demand for bigger homes and more land for urban development, which has a great effect on biodiversity conservations, loss of carbon sinks and energy use.”‎ ‎32.According to the passage, the most dangerous place for city expansion is the _____.‎ A. forest B. desert C. savannas D. coastline ‎33.The underlined word “vulnerable” (in Paragraph 3) probably means “____”.‎ A. diverse in plants B. beautiful in scenery C. easily damaged D. very productive ‎34.From Paragraph Five, we can infer that ____.‎ A. urbanization is a good way to improve people’s standards of living ‎ 13 / 13‎ B. cities develop very fast and more and more people come to live in cities C. more and more agricultural farmlands are used to make room for local animals D. in the past, researchers focused their attention on the expanding urban areas ‎35.Cities in Africa become bigger and bigger mainly because of their ____.‎ A. growing population B. rising middle class C. unique living patterns D. economic development 第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)‎ 根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ Are you involved in a situation where first aid was required? What to do? Did you feel adequately equipped and confident enough to perform first aid procedures? At the SOS Center, trained professions provide some one-on one and group courses in first aid.     (36)          ‎ First Aid For Infants (婴儿)‎ This course is designed for first- time parents who do not have a basic knowledge of first aid for infants and babies,     (37)       , or if you want to avoid more life threatening problems and illnesses, you will get them from these topics.‎ First Aid for Children Every parent knows the fear of releasing their small child out into the world, away from their watchful eye.     (38)        . This course teaches parents how to determine when an injury requires stitches (缝针), how to treat basic cuts, as well as how to treat sunburns and other wounds.‎ ‎    (39)           ‎ Our most popular course offers all kinds of approaches to applying first aid. In this two-day course, you’ll learn some basic skills such as how to respond when a child or adult chokes, what to do if someone has a heart attack or stroke, how to react to snake bites and spider bites, and more. This course is highly recommended for learners of all ages.‎ ‎    (40)      . In addition, we are planning to open special courses in community centers around Beijing. For more information on SOS and our course selection or to register for a course, please visit www.firstthigsfirst.com.‎ A. If you want to avoid the risk of your parents’ injuries B. We offer a variety of courses designed to meet particular needs C. When you want to ease your baby’s discomforts ‎ 13 / 13‎ D. Basic Training Course in First Aid E. Classes are offered on a regular basis at our main office F. Various First-Aid Courses for Babies G. As children grow more adventurous, the risk of injury increases as well.‎ 第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)‎ 第一节 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)‎ 阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。‎ In France, there once lived a famous man named the Marquis de Lafayette. When he was a little boy, his mother called him Gilbert.      Gilbert's father and grandfather had both been   (41)   men in his village. He was proud of them, and he   (42)   that he might grow up to be like them.      Gilbert's home was near a   (43)  . One day word came that a cruel   (44)   had been seen in the woods. Men said it had killed many of the villagers' sheep. Gilbert was only seven, but all his   (45)   were about the cruel animal.      "Shall we take a   (46)  ?" asked his mother.      "Oh, yes!" said Gilbert. "We may see that wolf in the forest. But don't be   (47)  .      His mother smiled,   (48)   she felt quite sure that there was no   (49)  .      They did not go far into the woods. The mother sat down under a tree and began to   (50)  . Seeing Mom interested in her book, Gilbert decided to   (51)   the animal. He walked quietly into a wilder place. He looked   (52)   around, but saw only a rabbit.      Then,   (53)  , he heard footsteps. He stood still and   (54)  , When the animal was very   (55)   to him, he jumped out of his hiding place and held it round its neck. It did not try to bite. But it threw Gilbert upon the   (56)  .      Gilbert was soon on his feet again. He was not   (57)   at all. He looked at the animal: It was not a wolf but a calf (牛犊).      The boy felt very   (58)  . He hurried back to his mother, tears in his eyes. He told her what had happened.      His mother said, "You were very   (59)  . You are my hero because you   (60)   what you thought was a great danger and you were not afraid."‎ ‎41.A. famous B. wise C. brave D. generous ‎42.A. wished B. guessed C. realized D. believed ‎43.A. mountain B. forest C. farm D. river ‎ ‎ 13 / 13‎ ‎44.A. tiger B. lion C. bear D. wolf ‎45.A. thoughts B. questions C. plans D. complaints ‎46.A. bath B. picture C. walk D. break ‎47. A. tired B. afraid C. cruel D. surprised ‎48.A. so B. once C. but D. for ‎49.A. danger B. wonder C. use D. point ‎50.A. sing B. read C. sleep D. draw ‎51.A. give up B. worry about C. look for D. ask about ‎52.A. angrily B. hurriedly C. proudly D. carefully ‎53.A. finally B. suddenly C. gradually D. strangely ‎54.A. listened B. cried C. waited D. watched 55.A. close B. familiar C. blind D. harmful ‎56.A. stone B. wall C. tree D. ground 57.A. defeated B. bothered C. frightened D. hurt ‎58.A. annoyed B. ashamed C. nervous D. excited ‎59.A. smart B. curious C. courageous D. lucky ‎60.A. faced B. avoided C. chose D. accepted 第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)‎ 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ Facebook founder Mark Zuckerberg recently surprised Chinese students when   (61)   (speak) to them in Chinese. In a talk at Tsinghua University in Beijing, Zuckerberg spoke Chinese for about 30 minutes.   (62)   his Chinese was far from perfect, the students cheered his effort. Like Zuckerberg, more and more people   (63)   (study) Chinese in America now. ‎ Andres Martinez, a professor at Arizona State University, says that he thinks   (64)   is important to respect Chinese culture and expects the language to grow.   (65)  , he says English will still remain the global language. ‎ ‎  (66)   (see) as a more neutral(中立的)language than Chinese, English is not associated with one country. He says even the ideas of   (67)   (equal) are built into English grammar. Besides, Chinese is a more difficult language to learn. The U.S.  Foreign Service Institute points out that it will take   (68)   native English speaker 2, 200 hours to reach professional fluency in Chinese. That is four times longer than it will take to reach the same ‎ 13 / 13‎ ‎ level in Dutch, French, or Spanish. Much   (69)   (simple) as Chinese grammar is, Chinese has a tone and writing system   (70)   is more difficult for learners to master.‎ 第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)‎ 第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。‎ 修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;‎ 2. 只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。‎ Yesterday, in the Palace Museum, I met a young student, that came from the USA. It was first time that I had met a foreigner, so I went to greet her in English. He told me that he was a college student travel in China and he liked China very much. I volunteered to show him around to the museum. He was impressing by the Chinese buildings and busy taking photo all the time. He said he hadn't seen so beautiful buildings before. After that, we go boating on a lake but had a good time together. I was very glad to have the chance to improve my spoken English.                   ‎ 第二节 书面表达(满分25分)‎ 假设你是李华,看到你们社区招募暑假照顾老人的广告.你对此工作表示感兴趣,希望得到机会去照顾老人.请结合下面的要点,给社区负责人写一封求职信. 内容要点: 1.你对这份工作的认识; 2.你有什么优势; 3.你的计划。 注意事项: 1.词数100左右; 2.不要逐条翻译,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯; 3.信的开头和结尾已给出,但不计入总词数。 ‎ ‎ 13 / 13‎ Dear Sir, I have read the advertisement on the neighborhood board and __________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎____________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎  I'm looking forward to your reply in time. ‎ Yours,‎ Li Hua ‎ 13 / 13‎

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