秘密★启用前
2021高考浙江省9月联考
英语
注意事项：
1.本试题卷共8页，满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡的相应位置。
3.全部答案在答题卡上完成，答在本试题卷上无效。
4.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
5.考试结束后，将本试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt?
A.￡19.15. B.￡9. 18. C.￡9.15.
答案是C。
1. What does Jack do?
A. A writer. B. A teacher. C. A photographer.
2. Whom did the woman want to call?
A. Logan. B. Stephen. C. Samuel.
3. Why does the man come to this hotel?
A. It has a low price. B. It has comfortable rooms. C. It is close to his home.
4. What are the speakers probably doing?
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A. Taking a bus. B. Rushing to the stop. C. Moving to the door.
5. What does the woman mean?
A. She doesn't like the horse.
B. Brian's choice is in vain.
C. A man should earn much money.
第二节(共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Father and daughter. B. Husband and wife. C. Guide and visitor.
7. What does the woman particularly like to do?
A. Learn how to fish. B. Relax on the beach. C. Do some shopping.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. Where has Betty been these days?
A. In a primary school. B. In a junior school. C. In a senior high school.
9. What subject does Betty teach?
A. Maths. B. English. C. Science.
10. How does Betty feel about being a volunteer teacher?
A. Hard. B. Anxious. C. Enjoyable.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What was the weather like on weekdays?
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Foggy.
12. What made the speakers dissatisfied?
A. The food. B. The waiter's service. C. The temperature in the room
13. Where would the woman like to spend her next holiday?
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A. In the forest. B. On the beach. C. In the mountains.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What will the man do this morning?
A. Eat a cake. B. Buy a present. C. Lecture in class.
15. What does the man think of speaking in public for him?
A. Honorable. B. Fearful. C. Fair.
16. What does the woman advise the man to do?
A. Do more preparation. B. Have more confidence. C. Make no complaint.
17. Where does this conversation probably take place?
A. On the street. B. In the classroom. C. In the supermarket.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Why are the long lines formed in the parks?
A. To keep away from the virus.
B. To raise the business interests.
C. To offer people more rides than ever.
19. What is the speaker still concerned about?
A. Parks' survival. B. Workers' job chances. C. The frequency of cleaning rides.
20. What does the speaker mainly talk about?
A. Food safety. B. Consideration for reopening. C. Florida's theme parks' loss.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C、和D)中，选出最佳选项。
A
Two Russian cosmonauts(宇航员)aboard the International Space Station (ISS) played chess against an Earth-bound grandmaster on Tuesday，in celebration of the first such game half a century ago.
Equipped with an electronic chessboard，cosmonauts Anatoly Ivanishin and Ivan Vaguer
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played in zero gravity against 30-year-old Russian former child prodigy(神童)Sergei Karyakin. The game was broadcast live and ended in a draw after about 15 minutes.
It was organised by the space agency Roscosmos and the Russian Chess Federation to celebrate the 50th anniversary of the first Space-Earth game of chess played on June 9, 1970. "It's a huge honor for us not to lose to a grandmaster," Ivanishin said, while Vaguer added that US astronauts on the ISS watched the game and gave tips.
Karyakin, who played from Moscow's Museum of Cosmonautics, said he was jittery during the game and could not fall asleep until 4 a. m. on the night before the match.
"They played well," he said. "I can say that the human brain functions very well in space, and I have seen this today." At the age of 12 years and seven months, Karyakin became the world's youngest ever grandmaster.
Ivanishin, Vagner and US astronaut Chris Cassidy arrived on the ISS in April. On May 31, they were joined by US astronauts Bob Behnken and Doug Hurley on the first manned private (light to the ISS. SpaceX made history by becoming the world's first commercial company to send humans to the ISS, leading Russia to lose its long-held monopoly(垄断)on space travel.
21. Why did the two Russian astronauts play chess on the ISS?
A. To offer a live show from the ISS.
B. To prove their success in boarding the ISS.
C. To test the human brain functions in zero gravity.
D. To celebrate the first Space-Earth chess game 50 years ago.
22. What does the underlined word "jittery" mean in the fourth paragraph?
A. Bored. B. Disappointed. C. Anxious. D. Frightened.
23. What is the best title of the passage?
A. A Space-Earth Chess Game B. A Former Child Chess Prodigy
C. A Chess Game Played on the ISS D. A Celebration of Human Space History
B
The game is on. The question is, who will win the battle of the "real meat" hamburgers VS the
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"fake meat" hamburgers? The new "fake" challengers have no ham or meat in them. Some of their content comes from plants. They also contain other ingredients that are “processed”. The two most popular are the Impossible Burger and the Beyond Burger.
The meat industry is pointing out the differences between fake meat and real meat. First, they want the states or the federal government not to allow the words "meat" or "beef" to be on the fake burger labels. Second, they want the meatless products removed from the meat shelves. Third, they want the word "imitation" placed on all fake meat products. The plant-based burger industry has a few points it wants to make. The biggest is that raising cattle is a huge burden on the planet. Their meatless burgers have required less land and water. They create fewer greenhouse emissions than meat burgers from cattle.
But what are the real issues for consumers? First, how do the meatless burgers taste? That is up to the eater. One study says that 90 percent of the customers buying the meatless burgers also eat meat. These customers think the products are good for their health. And they believe the meatless burgers are better for the environment. Observers say it is the millennials who are driving the meatless demand. Millennials are people born between 1980 and 2000.
A taste test of the meatless burgers said they tasted very well. That is, they tasted like meat hamburgers. Thus, the new products have a future.
Another issue promises to be the big one for the future. To look and taste like meat hamburgers, they need a lot of doctoring. Are the meatless burgers better for your health? The answer is not yet in. The high amount of sodium(钠)in the meatless burgers is a factor. An expert said there are fewer health benefits if eaters eat the burgers with ketchup or mustard.
24. Why are the hamburgers called “fake meat” hamburgers?
A. They are "real meat" hamburgers' challengers. B. They are made from plants.
C. There is no ham or meat in them. D. There is "processed" meat in them.
25. What can we learn from the second paragraph?
A. The government doesn't allow "meat" to he on the fake burger labels.
B. The meatless products will be removed from the meat shelves.
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C. The meatless burger industry may he more environmental-friendly.
D. The meat burger industry raises far more cattle than the meatless one.
26. What is the writer's attitude towards the "fake meat" hamburgers?
A. Objective. B. Supportive. C. Opposed. D. Doubtful.
C
Water keeps us alive. When it runs out, we have a problem.
About one out of four people on the planet are facing a shortage of water. Seventeen countries around the world are dealing with high-water stress. This means they are using almost all the water they have access to. Many are dry countries. Some waste much of their water. Some may currently use too much of their groundwater that they should be saving. Several big cities face acute shortages. These include Sao Paulo, Brazil; Chennai, India; and Cape Town, South Africa. A year ago, Cape Town faced nay Zero-the day when all its dams would he dry.
Climate change adds to the risk of water shortages. Rainfall is less steady. The water supply becomes less reliable. The days grow hotter. More water evaporates(蒸发)from lakes and rivers even as demand for water increases. By 2030, the number of cities in the high-stress category may have risen to 45 and include almost 470 million people.
All over the world, farmers compete with city residents for water. Rich urban places, such as Los Angeles, use too much water for pools and golf courses. But the worst problem is the growth of cities. Bangalore, India, for example, had a few years with little rain. It built over its many lakes or filled them with city waste. The lakes are no longer the rain water storage tanks they once were. Bangalore now imports water. A lot of the imported water, however, gets lost on the way to Bangalore.
To address this issue, what can be done? First, cities can plug leaks in their water distribution system. Wastewater can be recycled. Rain can be harvested and saved for hard times. Lakes and wetlands can be cleaned up and old wells can be restored. And farmers can switch from water-intensive crops like rice to less-thirsty crops like millet(小米).
Experts are looking at ways to reduce the number of people on the planet. They are looking at
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ways to reduce the size of cities. They are looking for ways to encourage people, factories and farmers to use less water.
27. What can we know from Paragraph 2?
A. A quarter of the world's population is living with water shortages.
B. Nearly all countries are facing acute water shortages now.
C. Underground water should he used to meet the water demand.
D. Measures have been taken to deal with the water shortage in India.
28. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?
A. Rainfall is not as steady as before. B. Climate change may lead to water shortages.
C. The water supply relies more on rainfall. D. Hotter weather changes the water demand.
29. What can farmers do to deal with water shortage?
A. Plug leaks in the water distribution system. B. Clean up lakes and wetlands and restore wells.
C. Reduce the number of people in the cities. D. Grow less-water consumption crops instead.
30. What will be discussed if the passage continues?
A. How to prevent from climate change. B. How to inspire people to save water.
C. How to recycle wastewater in cities. D. How to make people get access to clean water.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Improving as a runner is about more than just running all of the time. 31 In that case, you can make large improvements as a runner in a relatively short time, no matter what your sport, race, or running habits.
32 It is common for runners to push themselves about the same amount each time, running similarly challenging runs and gradually increasing difficulty. Outstanding runners, however, alternate(交替)an easy, resting run with a very challenging one. It is during these difficult runs，when you really push yourself, that your body snakes the most significant gains. 33 Rather, it is helping rebuild and relax the muscles needed for your big runs.
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Keep a relaxed but strong upper body to conserve energy efficiently. You want to keep your chin(下巴)up and your shoulders back, with loose, relaxed arm and hand muscles. Your elbows are bent at 90 degrees but swing freely. If anything, the only muscles you want to focus on keeping strong and tight are the ones in your core(核心). 34
Use your light run to work up a light sweat. A higher body temperature ensures your muscles are loose and flexible, and your body is pumping blood effectively throughout. For everything other than easy runs, use the first five to ten minutes to build a light sweat and get your body ready for exercise. 35 Slowly pick up speed for short 10 second runs, then return to normal warm-up pace. This helps prepare your muscles for speed.
A. Don't feel like an easy day is "cheating".
B. Alternate easy and hard runs to build strength rapidly.
C. Even five minutes of walking is a good way to get started.
D. "Warming up" truly means you want to warm up your body.
E. You are to pay a little attention to details and a smart training plan.
F. That's because this will naturally help you efficiently channel energy.
G. Remember to relax your face and neck muscles instead of tensing them
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分45分)
第一节完形填空(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Images of her childhood flashed past her eyes. There she was, aged three, building a sandcastle on the 36 . Time flew by as those small little 37 changed into stronger ones which were trying to 38 a castle out of Lego blocks. Moving on, those hands were 39 covered with sweat, as she 40 a pen tightly, while taking her first major exam. Later on, they were slightly relaxed, as the pen was changed into a steering wheel, 41 along with family and friends.
How fast time 42 , she thought. We all come into this world with a set of 43
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, hopes and aspiration. We are 44 to grow up to achieve these dreams and 45 the world. But maybe sometimes in this process, we forget to 46 the journey. Yes, it is 47 to pursue your dreams and work hard to achieve them. But at the same time, it is also important to 48 time out for your loved ones, enjoy and cherish every 49 spent with them. As it is these moments that 50 some of the most beautiful 51 to be cherished for a lifetime!
Every day isn't the same. The best thing in life is to take each day at a time, to cherish every moment and do what you love. Perhaps 52 is one of the best examples that show us the 53 meaning of doing what we love and doing what makes us smile.
Looking at the shining face of her 54 (laughter, she realized that, perhaps she's got a second chance…chance to 55 her childhood once again!
36. A. roof B. beach C. street D. train
37. A. hands B. eyes C. legs D. feet
38. A. turn B. kick C. make D. work
39. A. suddenly B. rapidly C. strangely D. generally
40. A. threw B. bit C. caught D. held
41. A. skating B. playing C. jogging D. driving
42. A. comes on B. goes by C. runs away D. carries on
43. A. conditions B. glories C. dreams D. rules
44. A. eager B. cautious C. curious D. nervous
45. A. give up B. take over C. break into D. turn down
46. A. enjoy B. record C. share D. predict
47. A. difficult B. ridiculous C. important D. impossible
48. A. put B. watch C. reach D. take
49. A. coin B. moment C. effort D. treasure
50. A. gain B. cover C. form D. forget
51. A. minds B. memories C. desires D. interests
52. A. childhood B. friendship C. livelihood D. hardship
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53. A. correct B. useful C. effective D. true
54. A. eldest B. elderly C. newborn D. teenaged
55. A. retell B. rewrite C. remark D. relive
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分45分)
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Environment Agency today is setting out 56 plan that it leads the way toward a greener, healthier future. Its new 5-year plan, EA2025, calls for a new approach which betters health, fair and environmental improvement. By 2025 the agency aims to have created more climate adaptive places and infrastructure(基础设施), by ensuring the nation is prepared for flooding, coastal change and drought. The plan also highlights a renewed focus 57 improving the health of air, land and water for people and nature-and ensuring green 58 (grow) for a lasting future.
Since lockdown began，the Environment Agency 59 (remain)fully operational, with the majority of staff 60 (work)from home, and frontline staff remaining active on the ground handling issues such as flood risk and pollution.
Staff have been making the 61 (good)use of technology to continue work-such as remotely concluding legal hearings and using drones(无人机)to monitor regulated sites, and looking at how we can adopt these practices in the future to he more efficient and 62 (effect).Teams have been serving equipment 63 supports public water supply, food production and river flows.
The hot weather led to several fish rescues, 64 fisheries enforcement teams(渔业执法队)continued to investigate illegal fishing. Last month a major coastal flood defense plan 65 (complete)which will protect more than 300 houses in West Sussex.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
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假定你是校学生会主席李华，你校将举办英文名著阅读比赛，每位参赛者需要提供一篇英文名著读后感(book report)。请你给外教Mr. Johnson写一封邀请信，请他担任该比赛的评委。内容包括：
1.发出邀请；
2.比赛的具体安排；
3.期待回复。
注意：
1.词数80左右；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。
I was a single mother in my 20s who lived clown and out with my daughter Peggy in a small apartment, struggling hard to make our needs meet.
One day, I headed to the downtown for an interview. I sat clown in the streetcar, and there against the seat was a beautiful silk umbrella with a silver handle decorated with gold scrolls, among which there was a name carved.
On impulse(冲动)I determined to find the owner myself. I got off the streetcar in the heavy rain and thankfully opened the umbrella to protect myself. Then I searched a telephone hook for the name. I found it immediately and called it, waiting patiently, and then a lady answered.
"Yes," she said in surprise, with extreme excitement. "Ii was my umbrella which had been stolen a year ago."
So appealing was her pleasure that I forgot I was looking for a job and went directly to her small house. She took the umbrella, with teary eyes, explaining with choked voice that the umbrella
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was given by her parents, now dead. Her happiness at retrieving(找回)this special possession was such that to have accepted her reward would have spoiled something, so I refused her offer and left.
The following months were hard. I can only obtain temporary employment, for a small salary. What was worse, I had just lost my last job before Christmas, with only fifteen dollars left. Unless a miracle happened, I would be homeless in January, foodless and jobless. I had prayed steadily for weeks, and there had been no answer but this coldness and darkness.
The air was full of Christmas merriment, with the bells ringing and children shouting in the bitter dusk of the evening. But there should be no Christmas for me, I knew, no gifts, no remembrance whatsoever.
Thinking of this, I couldn't control my tears on my way front the streetcar to home, but I managed a smile so I could greet my little daughter. She opened the door for me and threw herself in my arms, screaming joyously and demanding desirably for her Christmas gift. There I stood, frozen, overwhelmed by misery.
注意：
1.所续写短文的词数应为150左右；
2.至少使用5个以上短文中标有下划线的关键词语；
3.续写部分分为两段，每段的开头语已为你写好；
4.续写完成后，请用下划线标出你所使用的关键词语
Paragraph 1:
Suddenly, the doorbell rang and Peggy rushed to answer it, calling that it must be Santa Claus.
Paragraph 2:
Suddenly, a note attached to one package caught my eyes.
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